Regulation 1
Citation and commencement
These Regulations are the Health Products (Therapeutic Products) Regulations 2016 and come into operation on 1 November 2016.
/akn/sg/act/sub_leg/2007/HPA-S329-2016
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Health Products (Therapeutic Products) Regulations 2016 is Singapore Subsidiary Legislation, cited as Subsidiary Legislation HPA-S329-2016 2007, currently marked in force and first recorded in 2007.
Part 1
Citation and commencement
These Regulations are the Health Products (Therapeutic Products) Regulations 2016 and come into operation on 1 November 2016.
Definitions
In these Regulations, unless the context otherwise requires —[Deleted by S 436/2023 wef 26/06/2023][Deleted by S 436/2023 wef 26/06/2023][Deleted by S 436/2023 wef 26/06/2023][Deleted by S 436/2023 wef 26/06/2023][Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023][Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023][Deleted by S 436/2023 wef 26/06/2023](2) For the purposes of these Regulations, a prescription is valid only if the prescription —
is written and signed by a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner; and
contains all of the following particulars:
the date of the prescription;
the name and address of the qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner giving the prescription;
the name, identity card or other identification document number, and contact details, of the patient to whom the prescription relates;
the name and total amount of the prescribed therapeutic product to be supplied to, and the dose to be taken by, the patient;
where the qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner giving the prescription intends for the prescription to be repeated, an indication of the number of times, and the time period between which, the prescribed therapeutic product may be supplied;
where the prescription is given by a dentist, a declaration by the dentist that the prescription is “for dental treatment only”.
“acute hospital service”, “ambulatory surgical centre service”, “assisted reproduction service”, “blood banking service”, “community hospital service”, “contingency care service”, “nuclear medicine service”, “nursing home service”, “outpatient dental service”, “outpatient medical service”, “outpatient renal dialysis service” and “radiological service” have the meanings given by paragraph 2 of the First Schedule to the Healthcare Services Act 2020;
“administer”, in relation to a substance or article, means to give or apply it to a human being, whether —
orally;
by injection or by introduction into the body in any other way; or
by external application, whether by direct contact with the body or not;
“appropriate non-proprietary name”, in relation to an active ingredient of a therapeutic product, means —
the name or synonym of the active ingredient described in the relevant monograph appearing in the latest edition of any specified publication;
where the active ingredient is not described in a monograph in any specified publication, its international non-proprietary name; or
where paragraph (a) or (b) is not applicable, the accepted scientific name or other name descriptive of the true nature of the active ingredient;
“appropriate quantitative particulars”, in relation to a therapeutic product, means —
the quantity of each active ingredient, identified by its appropriate non-proprietary name, in each dosage unit of the therapeutic product and expressed in terms of weight, volume, capacity or units of activity; or
where there is no dosage unit of the therapeutic product, the quantity of each active ingredient, identified by its appropriate non-proprietary name, in the container of the therapeutic product and expressed in terms of weight, volume, capacity or units of activity or percentage by weight or volume of the total quantity;
“approved conveyance”, “approved permanent premises” and “permanent premises” have the meanings given by section 2(1) of the Healthcare Services Act 2020;
“Authority’s website” means the Authority’s Internet website at http://www.hsa.gov.sg;
“business name”, in relation to a healthcare service licensee, means the name under which the healthcare service licensee is authorised by a licence under the Healthcare Services Act 2020 to carry on the business of providing a licensable healthcare service;
“codeine cough preparation” means a therapeutic product that —
is in liquid or solid form;
contains codeine or its salts; and
is intended for the treatment of coughs;
“collaborative prescribing practitioner” has the meaning given by regulation 2 of the Healthcare Services (Collaborative Prescribing Service) Regulations 2023 (G.N. No. S 398/2023);
“compound”, in relation to a therapeutic product, means to formulate, mix, assemble, package or label the therapeutic product, with the intention of dispensing or administering the therapeutic product to a patient in accordance with the written instructions of a qualified practitioner;
“container”, in relation to a therapeutic product, means an article or packaging immediately covering the therapeutic product, including any bottle, ampoule, blister pack, sachet, dial dispenser pack, strip pack, syringe, tube, vessel, vial, wrapper or other similar article, but does not include —
an article for ingestion; or
an outer package or other packaging in which the container is further enclosed;
“dispense”, in relation to a therapeutic product, means to prepare and supply the therapeutic product to a patient, where the preparation and supply is made by —
a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner, or a person acting under the supervision of a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner; or
a qualified pharmacist or a person acting under the supervision of a qualified pharmacist;
“expiry date”, for a therapeutic product, means the date after which, or the month and year after the end of which, the therapeutic product should not be used;
“general sale list medicine” means a therapeutic product registered under the classification of “general sale list medicine” in the Register of Health Products;
“healthcare service licensee” means a person who holds a licence under the Healthcare Services Act 2020 to provide a licensable healthcare service;
“importer’s licence” means an importer’s licence authorising the holder of the licence to import a therapeutic product under section 13 of the Act;
“international non-proprietary name”, for an active ingredient, means a name which has been selected by the World Health Organization as a recommended international non-proprietary name for the active ingredient;
“licensable healthcare service” has the meaning given by section 3(1) of the Healthcare Services Act 2020;
“licensed retail pharmacy” means premises specified in a pharmacy licence;
“licensee”, in relation to a therapeutic product, means a licensed manufacturer, licensed importer or licensed wholesaler;
“manufacturer’s licence” means a manufacturer’s licence authorising the holder of the licence to manufacture a therapeutic product under section 12 of the Act;
“non-clinical purpose” means any purpose not involving any application of a therapeutic product on, or use of a therapeutic product by, humans;
“outpatient dental service licensee” means a healthcare service licensee who is authorised to provide an outpatient dental service;
“outpatient medical service licensee” means a healthcare service licensee who is authorised to provide an outpatient medical service;
“outpatient renal dialysis service licensee” means a healthcare service licensee who is authorised to provide an outpatient renal dialysis service;
“personnel”, in relation to a healthcare service licensee providing a licensable healthcare service, means any individual employed or engaged by the healthcare service licensee to assist the licensee in providing a licensable healthcare service;
“Pharmaceutical Inspection Convention and Pharmaceutical Inspection Co-operation Scheme Guide to Good Manufacturing Practice for Medicinal Products” means the text of the Pharmaceutical Inspection Convention and Pharmaceutical Inspection Co-operation Scheme Guide to Good Manufacturing Practice for Medicinal Products as set out on the Authority’s website from time to time;
“pharmacy licence” means a licence issued under the Health Products (Licensing of Retail Pharmacies) Regulations 2016 (G.N. No. S 330/2016);
“pharmacy-only medicine” means a therapeutic product registered under the classification of “pharmacy‑only medicine” in the Register of Health Products;
“prescription-only medicine” means a therapeutic product registered under the classification of “prescription‑only medicine” in the Register of Health Products;
“proprietary name” means a word or words used in connection with the sale or supply of a therapeutic product for the purpose of indicating that it is the product of a particular person who manufactures, selects the name of, certifies or deals with the therapeutic product, or offers it for sale or supply;
“psychotropic substance” means a substance specified in the First Schedule;
“qualified pharmacist” means a person who —
is registered as a pharmacist under the Pharmacists Registration Act 2007;
holds a valid practising certificate granted under section 23 of that Act; and
is in active practice as defined in regulation 2 of the Pharmacists Registration (Practising Certificates) Regulations 2008 (G.N. No. S 438/2008);
“qualified practitioner” means —
a registered medical practitioner under the Medical Registration Act 1997; or
a registered dentist under the Dental Registration Act 1999 whose name appears in the first division of the Register of Dentists maintained and kept under section 13(1)(a) of that Act;
“relevant fee” means a fee specified in the Eighth Schedule to the Health Products (Fees) Regulations 2022 (G.N. No. S 450/2022);
“remote service kiosk” has the meaning given by regulation 2(1) of the Healthcare Services (Outpatient Medical Service) Regulations 2023 (G.N. No. S 410/2023);
“repacking”, in relation to the compounding of a therapeutic product, means removing the therapeutic product from the container in which it is originally supplied by its manufacturer and —
placing it in a different container; or
changing the outer packaging or other packaging in which the container is further enclosed;
“specified healthcare service licensee” means a healthcare service licensee who is authorised to provide any of the following licensable healthcare services:
an acute hospital service;
an ambulatory surgical centre service;
an assisted reproduction service;
a blood banking service;
a community hospital service;
a contingency care service;
a nuclear medicine service;
(ga)a nursing home service;
an outpatient dental service;
an outpatient medical service;
an outpatient renal dialysis service;
a radiological service;
“specified publication” means any of the following:
the British Pharmacopoeia;
the European Pharmacopoeia;
the United States Pharmacopoeia and the National Formulary;
“supply by retail sale” means sale by retail and includes exposure or display as an invitation to treat;
“temporary premises” means any premises other than permanent premises;
“therapeutic product” means a health product categorised as a therapeutic product in the First Schedule to the Act;
“trade description” means any description, statement or indication which, directly or indirectly and by any means given, relates to any of the following matters in respect of a therapeutic product:
the quantity, liquid volume or weight of the therapeutic product;
the method of manufacture, production, or processing, of the therapeutic product;
the characteristics or composition of the therapeutic product;
the fitness for purpose (including expiry date), dosage strength, or intended purpose, of the therapeutic product;
any physical characteristics or presentation of the therapeutic product not referred to in paragraphs (a) to (d);
the testing of the therapeutic product by any person and the results of the test;
the approval of the therapeutic product by any person or its conformity with a product description approved by any person;
the place or date of manufacture, production, or processing, of the therapeutic product;
the name of the person who manufactured, produced or processed the therapeutic product;
“wholesaler’s licence” means a wholesaler’s licence authorising the holder of the licence to supply a therapeutic product by wholesale under section 14 of the Act.
Scope of Regulations
These Regulations do not apply to any therapeutic product that is clinical research material as defined in regulation 2(1) of the Health Products (Therapeutic Products as Clinical Research Materials) Regulations 2016 (G.N. No. S 332/2016).
Part 2
Requirements for issue of manufacturer’s licence
For the purposes of section 24(2)(a)(i) of the Act, the requirements that must be satisfied for the issue, to an applicant, of a manufacturer’s licence for a therapeutic product are that —
the applicant is able to provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities as are necessary for carrying out the stages of the manufacture of the therapeutic product to be authorised by the licence;
the applicant is able to provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities for the handling and storage of the therapeutic product as are necessary to prevent the deterioration of the therapeutic product while it is in the applicant’s ownership, possession or control;
the applicant is able to conduct all manufacturing operations in such a way as to ensure that the therapeutic product is of the correct identity and conforms with the applicable standards of strength, quality and purity for that therapeutic product; and
the applicant is able to comply with the Pharmaceutical Inspection Convention and Pharmaceutical Inspection Co‑operation Scheme Guide to Good Manufacturing Practice for Medicinal Products in relation to the manufacture of the therapeutic product.
Requirements for issue of importer’s licence
For the purposes of section 24(2)(a)(i) of the Act, the requirements that must be satisfied for the issue, to an applicant, of an importer’s licence for a therapeutic product are that —
the applicant is able to provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities for the handling and storage of the therapeutic product as are necessary to prevent the deterioration of the therapeutic product while it is in the applicant’s ownership, possession or control;
the therapeutic product —
is imported on behalf of a specified healthcare service licensee pursuant to a valid prescription given by a qualified practitioner (who is a personnel of the specified healthcare service licensee) for the use of the qualified practitioner’s patient;
is intended to be supplied solely for the purpose of scientific education or research and development, or for a non-clinical purpose;
is imported solely for the purpose of export;
is intended to be supplied for use on a ship, and the therapeutic product is one that is required to be carried on board the ship under the Merchant Shipping (Medical Stores) Regulations (Rg 3), the Merchant Shipping (Maritime Labour Convention) (Medicines and Medical Equipment) Regulations 2014 (G.N. No. S 181/2014) or any other written law, for the treatment of persons on board that ship;
is intended to be supplied for use on an aircraft, and the therapeutic product forms part of the medical supplies required under the Air Navigation Order (O 2) or any other written law, for the treatment of persons on board the aircraft;
is authorised for import by the registrant of the therapeutic product; or
is in all respects the same as a registered therapeutic product, the registrant of which has not authorised the applicant to import that registered therapeutic product; and
the applicant is able to comply with the requirements in the Authority’s Guidance Notes on Good Distribution Practice for importers set out on the Authority’s website if the therapeutic product is imported in accordance with sub‑paragraph (b)(i), (vi) and (vii).
In addition to the requirements in paragraph (1), an applicant who intends to import a therapeutic product under paragraph (1)(b)(vii) must obtain the Authority’s prior approval for each consignment of such therapeutic product to be imported.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (1) must be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website.
Import of therapeutic products containing psychotropic substances
Any person who intends to import a therapeutic product that contains a psychotropic substance must obtain the Authority’s prior approval for each consignment of such therapeutic product to be imported.
The amount of each consignment of a therapeutic product to be imported under paragraph (1) must not exceed the quantity approved by the Authority.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (1) must be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website.
This regulation applies in addition to the requirements in section 13 of the Act.
Part 3
Requirements for purposes of section 17
Divisions 1 to 3 of this Part prescribe the requirements for the supply of therapeutic products, whether registered or not, to give effect to section 17(1) of the Act.
Export of therapeutic products containing psychotropic substances
Any person who intends to export a therapeutic product that contains a psychotropic substance must obtain the Authority’s prior approval for each consignment of such therapeutic product to be exported.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (1) must be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website.
This regulation applies in addition to the requirements in section 14 of the Act.
Export of codeine cough preparations
Any person who intends to export a codeine cough preparation must obtain the Authority’s prior approval for each consignment of such codeine cough preparation to be exported.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (1) must be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website.
This regulation applies in addition to the requirements in section 14 of the Act.
Wholesale of therapeutic products containing Second Schedule ingredients
This regulation applies to a therapeutic product that —
is a preparation containing an active ingredient specified in Part 1 of the Second Schedule;
is within any class of therapeutic products specified in Part 2 of that Schedule; or
is a preparation containing an active ingredient specified in Part 3 of that Schedule.
A person who supplies by wholesale to another (called the recipient) any therapeutic product in paragraph (1) must —
before the supply, be satisfied that the recipient carries on the trade, business or profession stated in the order and that such trade, business or profession is one in which the therapeutic product is used;
at the time of the supply, ensure that there is an order in writing, signed by the recipient, stating the recipient’s name and address, trade, business or profession, and the name and total quantity of the therapeutic product supplied; and
after the supply, insert in the appropriate entry in the record of supply prescribed by regulation 32(2)(b) a reference number by which the order can be identified.
Paragraph (2) does not apply to the supply by wholesale of a therapeutic product under regulation 47 or 59.
Supply by retail sale of prescription-only medicine
A person must not supply by retail sale any prescription-only medicine unless —
the supply is made at or from a licensed retail pharmacy in accordance with regulation 3(1) and (2) of the Health Products (Licensing of Retail Pharmacies) Regulations 2016 (G.N. No. S 330/2016);
the supply is made by a healthcare service licensee to a patient of the healthcare service licensee, and is in accordance with the written instructions of a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner who is a personnel of the healthcare service licensee;
the following requirements are satisfied:
the person is a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner, or a person acting in accordance with the oral or written instructions of a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner;
the supply is made to a patient under the care of the qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner; or
the person is specified in the first column of item 1, 2, 2A or 2B of Part 1 of the Third Schedule, the prescription‑only medicine is of the type specified in the corresponding paragraph in the second column of that Schedule, and the supply is in accordance with the conditions specified in the corresponding paragraph in the third column of that Schedule.
Supply by administration of prescription-only medicine
A person must not administer a prescription-only medicine unless —
the person is a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner, or a person acting in accordance with the oral or written instructions of a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner; or
the person is specified in the first column of item 3, 4 or 5 of Part 1 of the Third Schedule, the prescription-only medicine is specified in the corresponding paragraph in the second column of that Schedule, and the administration of the prescription-only medicine is in accordance with the conditions specified in the third column of that Schedule.
Supply by retail sale of pharmacy-only medicine
A person must not supply by retail sale any pharmacy-only medicine unless —
the supply is made at or from a licensed retail pharmacy in accordance with regulation 3(1) of the Health Products (Licensing of Retail Pharmacies) Regulations 2016 (G.N. No. S 330/2016);
the supply is made by a healthcare service licensee to a patient of the healthcare service licensee, and is in accordance with the written instructions of a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner who is a personnel of the healthcare service licensee; or
the following requirements are satisfied:
the person is a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner, or a person acting in accordance with the oral or written instructions of a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner;
the supply is made to a patient under the care of the qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner.
A person who supplies by retail sale any pharmacy-only medicine must keep, at the premises where or from which the medicine is supplied, a record of every such supply, and the record must contain all of the following particulars in relation to each supply:
the date of the supply;
the name, identity card or other identification document number, and contact details, of the person to whom the pharmacy-only medicine is supplied;
the name, strength and total amount of pharmacy-only medicine to be supplied;
the dosage, and the frequency and purpose of the treatment for which the supply is made.
The record required under paragraph (2) must be made on the day on which the pharmacy-only medicine is supplied or, if that is not reasonably practicable, within 24 hours after that day, and must be kept for a period of at least 2 years after the date of the supply.
A supplier of a pharmacy-only medicine by retail sale must make available for inspection by the Authority at all reasonable times any record made under paragraph (2).
This regulation does not apply to the supply of any pharmacy-only medicine by administration to, or application in, any person in the course of any diagnosis, treatment or test.
Restrictions on supply by retail sale of codeine cough preparations
A qualified practitioner or qualified pharmacist who supplies by retail sale any codeine cough preparation must not supply more than the following to any individual within a period of 7 days:
where codeine cough preparations are supplied to the individual in liquid form only — an aggregate amount of 240 ml of codeine cough preparations;
where codeine cough preparations are supplied to the individual in solid form only or in both liquid and solid forms — an aggregate amount of 355 mg of codeine (calculated as codeine base) contained in the codeine cough preparations supplied.
A qualified practitioner or qualified pharmacist who supplies by retail sale any codeine cough preparation must, on each occasion of the supply of the codeine cough preparation to an individual, provide professional counselling on the use of the codeine cough preparation.
A qualified practitioner who supplies by retail sale any codeine cough preparation must, on each occasion of the supply of the codeine cough preparation to an individual, in addition to complying with regulation 16, record the purpose of the treatment for which the codeine cough preparation was supplied.
Supply of general sale list medicine by retail sale vending machine
A person may supply by retail sale any general sale list medicine by means of an automatic vending machine, if all of the following requirements are satisfied:
the person’s name and contact information is prominently displayed on the automatic vending machine;
the automatic vending machine is sufficiently equipped and secure to ensure appropriate storage conditions for the medicine;
the medicine is labelled and packaged in accordance with the conditions attached by the Authority to the registration of the medicine under the Act;
the package size of the medicine is the same as the package size specified for the registration of the medicine, and the total amount of the medicine in each package does not exceed a total dosage of 3 months per individual.
Records of supply of prescribed therapeutic products
A supplier must, in respect of the supply by retail sale of any therapeutic product prescribed by a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner, keep at the premises where or from which the therapeutic product is supplied a record, complying with paragraphs (2) and (3), of every such supply.
The record required under paragraph (1) must contain all of the following particulars:
the date of supply;
the name, identity card or other identification document number, and contact details, of the person to whom the therapeutic product is supplied;
the name of the therapeutic product, being either the proprietary name or the appropriate non-proprietary name, and the total amount supplied;
if the therapeutic product is supplied by a qualified pharmacist or a person acting under the supervision of a qualified pharmacist, or at or from a licensed retail pharmacy, the name and address of the qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner who signed the prescription.
The record in paragraph (1) must be made on the day on which the therapeutic product is supplied or, if that is not reasonably practicable, within 24 hours after that day, and must be kept for a period of at least 2 years after the date of the supply.
A supplier must make available for inspection by the Authority at all reasonable times any record made under paragraph (1).
This regulation does not apply to the supply of any therapeutic product by wholesale.
Supply by dispensing therapeutic products
A relevant person may dispense a therapeutic product only if the package or container of the therapeutic product is labelled with all of the following information in English:
the name of the person to whom the therapeutic product is to be administered;
where the product is supplied or dispensed —
at a licensed retail pharmacy — the name, address and any identification number or logo of the licensed retail pharmacy;
at any approved permanent premises by a healthcare service licensee under a business name — the business name, address of the approved permanent premises and any identification number or logo of the healthcare service licensee;
at any temporary premises or approved conveyance by a healthcare service licensee under a business name —
if the healthcare service licensee is also approved under the Healthcare Services Act 2020 to provide the licensable healthcare service at any permanent premises under that business name — the business name, address of the approved permanent premises and any identification number or logo of the healthcare service licensee; or
in any other case — the business name, address and any identification number or logo of the healthcare service licensee; or
by a healthcare service licensee using a remote service kiosk or by delivery under a business name —
if the healthcare service licensee is also approved under the Healthcare Services Act 2020 to provide the licensable healthcare service at any permanent premises under that business name — the business name, address of the approved permanent premises and any identification number or logo of the healthcare service licensee; or
in any other case — the business name, address and any identification number or logo of the healthcare service licensee;
the date that the therapeutic product is dispensed;
the directions for use of the therapeutic product;
the name of the therapeutic product, being either the proprietary name or the appropriate non-proprietary name;
where the appropriate non-proprietary name is included on the label, the appropriate quantitative particulars of any active ingredient of the therapeutic product.
A prescription-only medicine may be dispensed only in accordance with the following requirements:
where the qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner giving the prescription does not specify that the prescription is to be repeated, the relevant person dispensing the prescription-only medicine must —
when dispensing, mark the prescription in a manner so as to permanently attach the person’s name and address and the dispensing date to the prescription; and
retain the prescription for a period of at least 2 years after dispensing; or
where the qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner giving the prescription specifies that the prescription is to be repeated, the relevant person dispensing the prescription-only medicine —
must not dispense more than the total number of times specified on the prescription;
when dispensing, must mark the prescription in such a manner as to permanently attach the person’s name and address and the dispensing date to the prescription; and
must retain the prescription for a period of at least 2 years after dispensing for the last time.
In this regulation, “relevant person” means —
a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner, or a person acting under the supervision of a qualified practitioner or collaborative prescribing practitioner; or
a qualified pharmacist or a person acting under the supervision of a qualified pharmacist.
Requirements for issue of wholesaler’s licence
For the purposes of section 24(2)(a)(i) of the Act, the requirements that must be satisfied for the issue, to an applicant, of a wholesaler’s licence for a therapeutic product are that —
the applicant is able to provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities for the handling, storage and distribution of the therapeutic product as are necessary to prevent the deterioration of the therapeutic product while it is in the applicant’s ownership, possession or control; and
the applicant is able to comply with the Authority’s Guidance Notes on Good Distribution Practice for wholesalers set out on the Authority’s website.
Part 4
Trade descriptions
For the purposes of section 18(1) of the Act, the presentation of a therapeutic product must comply with all of the following requirements:
a trade description which is false or misleading must not be applied to the therapeutic product;
a trade description which explicitly or implicitly suggests that the supply or use of the therapeutic product is promoted or endorsed by the Authority, the Ministry of Health or the Health Promotion Board must not be applied to the therapeutic product.
For the purposes of paragraph (1)(a), a trade description is false or misleading if —
it contains any false statement or information concerning the therapeutic product; or
it is likely to create an erroneous impression regarding the formulation, composition, quality, safety, efficacy or uses of the therapeutic product.
For the purposes of paragraph (1), a person applies a trade description to a therapeutic product if the person —
affixes or annexes the trade description to, or in any manner marks it on or incorporates it in —
the therapeutic product; or
any thing in or on the therapeutic product or with which the therapeutic product is supplied;
places the therapeutic product in, on or with any thing which the trade description has been affixed or annexed to, marked on or incorporated in; or
makes any oral or written statement of the trade description, or uses the trade description in any other manner, which is likely to be understood as referring to the therapeutic product.
A person supplying a therapeutic product is taken to have applied a trade description to the therapeutic product if —
the therapeutic product is supplied pursuant to a request in which the trade description is used; and
it is reasonable in the circumstances to infer that any therapeutic product so supplied will correspond to that trade description.
Information to be provided with therapeutic products
In addition to regulation 19, a therapeutic product must, for the purposes of section 18(1) of the Act, be accompanied by all of the following information, where applicable, when it is supplied:
the name of the therapeutic product, being the proprietary name and the appropriate non-proprietary name;
the appropriate quantitative particulars of any active ingredient of the therapeutic product;
an appropriate control number, such as a serial number, batch number or lot number;
the expiry date of the therapeutic product;
where the therapeutic product is registered, the registration number assigned to the registered therapeutic product by the Authority.
Where a therapeutic product contains any substance specified in the first column of the Fourth Schedule, the therapeutic product must be labelled with a statement declaring the presence of that substance, and that substance may be described by a corresponding term specified in the second column of that Schedule.
Where a therapeutic product contains any substance specified in the first column of the Fifth Schedule, the therapeutic product must be labelled with the caution set out in the second column of that Schedule.
Where a therapeutic product is contained in a container, which is in the form of a bubble, blister or other sealed unit and is part of a continuous series comprising a sheet or strip of like containers, paragraph (2) or (3), as the case may be, is taken to have been complied with if the statement mentioned in paragraph (2) or the caution mentioned in paragraph (3) is printed or displayed or otherwise marked in a prominent position at frequent intervals on the sheet or strip of the container.
All information accompanying the therapeutic product mentioned in paragraph (1), including the statement mentioned in paragraph (2) and the caution mentioned in paragraph (3) —
must be provided in English; and
must be legible and indelible.
Corrective measures in relation to contravening trade descriptions or failure to provide prescribed information
Where any manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant of a therapeutic product has applied a trade description in contravention of regulation 19, the Authority may order that manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant, as the case may be, to do all or any of the following:
to stop disseminating, publishing or using the trade description with immediate effect;
to stop applying the trade description to the therapeutic product, or to stop supplying the therapeutic product applied with the trade description, with immediate effect;
to take such measures as may be reasonable and necessary in the circumstances to discontinue or remove any trade description that may already have been applied, disseminated, published or used;
to apply, disseminate or publish a corrective trade description in such manner and containing such information as the Authority may require.
Where any manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant of a therapeutic product fails to provide any information required by regulation 20 to accompany the supply of the therapeutic product, the Authority may order that manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant, as the case may be, to take such corrective measures as the Authority may require, including —
to stop supplying the therapeutic product with immediate effect; or
to take such measures as may be reasonable and necessary in the circumstances to ensure that the therapeutic product is only supplied with the required information.
A person to whom an order under paragraph (1) or (2) is directed must comply with the order at the person’s own cost and within the time specified in the order or, if no time is specified in the order, within a reasonable time after the date of the order.
A person who fails to comply with paragraph (3) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Without prejudice to paragraph (4), the Authority may take such steps as the Authority thinks reasonable and necessary to implement the requirements of an order directed to any person under paragraph (1) or (2), and recover any costs and expenses reasonably incurred by the Authority in so doing from the person.
Part 5
Requirements for registration
For the purposes of section 30(2)(a)(iii) of the Act, the Authority may, after carrying out an evaluation under section 33 of the Act, register a therapeutic product, if the Authority is satisfied —
that the overall intended benefits to a user of the therapeutic product outweigh the overall risks associated with the use of the therapeutic product; and
based on the formulation, manufacturing process controls, specifications and shelf life of the therapeutic product, and the stability of the therapeutic product under the recommended storage conditions, that the therapeutic product is suitable for its intended purpose and that any risk associated with its use is minimised.
Whether therapeutic product subject to patent
In dealing with an application for the registration of a therapeutic product, the Authority must consider the following:
whether any of the following patents under the Patents Act 1994 is in force in respect of the therapeutic product as described in the application for registration:
a patent containing a claim for an active ingredient of that therapeutic product;
a patent containing a claim for a formulation or composition of that therapeutic product;
a patent containing a claim for the use of an active ingredient in the manufacture of that therapeutic product for a specific therapeutic, preventive, palliative or diagnostic use;
if one or more patents mentioned in sub-paragraph (a) are in force in respect of the therapeutic product as described in the application for registration —
whether the applicant for the registration of the therapeutic product is the proprietor of the patent or those patents; and
if the applicant is not the proprietor of the patent or any of the patents —
whether the proprietor has consented to or has acquiesced in the grant of the registration of the therapeutic product to the applicant; or
whether the patent or any of the patents is invalid or will not be infringed by the doing of the act for which the registration of the therapeutic product is sought.
Unless the Authority otherwise determines, the applicant must, at the time of the application and at such other time before the determination of the application as the Authority may require, make and furnish to the Authority a declaration in the form specified on the Authority’s website, stating —
whether one or more patents under the Patents Act 1994 mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) are in force in respect of the therapeutic product; and
whether the applicant is the proprietor of the patent or those patents.
If the applicant is not the proprietor of the patent in respect of the therapeutic product and there is such a patent in force, the applicant must further state in the declaration mentioned in paragraph (2) —
the name and address of the proprietor of the patent;
whether —
the proprietor has consented to or has acquiesced in the grant of the registration of the therapeutic product by the applicant; or
in the opinion of the applicant and to the best of the applicant’s belief, the patent is invalid or will not be infringed by the doing of the act for which the registration of the therapeutic product is sought; and
such other information as the Authority may require in any particular case.
For the purposes of paragraph (1), the Authority may rely upon, and need not be concerned to inquire into the truth of, any statement made in the declaration furnished under paragraph (2).
Where the applicant is not the proprietor of a patent under the Patents Act 1994 mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) that is in force in respect of the therapeutic product, the Authority may require the applicant to serve, in accordance with section 67 of the Act, on the proprietor of the patent, a notice in the form specified on the Authority’s website, and within such time as the Authority may determine, if —
the applicant has declared that, in the applicant’s opinion and to the best of the applicant’s belief, the patent is invalid or will not be infringed by the doing of the act for which the registration is sought; or
the Authority considers it appropriate in any particular case for the applicant to do so.
The applicant must furnish to the Authority such evidence of the service of the notice mentioned in paragraph (5) as the Authority may require.
The Authority need not determine the application until the applicant has complied with paragraph (2) and, where applicable, paragraphs (5) and (6), to the reasonable satisfaction of the Authority.
If the Authority is satisfied that the notice mentioned in paragraph (5) has been served on the proprietor of the patent, the Authority may register the therapeutic product if the proprietor does not, before the 45th day after the date that notice is served on the proprietor —
apply to a court for —
an order restraining the act for which the registration of the therapeutic product is sought; or
a declaration that the patent is valid and will be infringed by the doing of the act for which the registration of the therapeutic product is sought; and
furnish the following to the Authority:
a written notice stating that an application under sub-paragraph (a) has been made;
evidence of the application made under sub-paragraph (a);
a declaration by the proprietor in the form specified on the Authority’s website that the application made under sub-paragraph (a) relates to a patent mentioned in paragraph (1)(a) that is in force in respect of the therapeutic product that is the subject of an application for registration.
The Authority may register the therapeutic product without further notice to the proprietor of the patent, if no order or declaration mentioned in paragraph (8)(a) has been made at the end of 30 months after the date of the application for the order or declaration.
If, before the end of the period mentioned in paragraph (9), the proprietor of the patent submits to the Authority a copy of the order or declaration mentioned in paragraph (8)(a), the Authority may refuse to register the therapeutic product.
To avoid doubt, this regulation does not apply to the following patents:
a process patent, other than a process patent that contains a claim for the use of an active ingredient in the manufacture of a therapeutic product for a specific therapeutic, preventive, palliative or diagnostic use;
a patent that contains only claims relating to packaging;
a patent that contains only claims relating to metabolites;
a patent that contains only claims relating to intermediates.
Cancellation of registration of therapeutic product subject to patent dispute
Without prejudice to the generality of section 37(1) of the Act, the Authority may, upon an application by any interested person, cancel the registration of a therapeutic product, if the Authority is satisfied —
that —
a court has determined that the doing of an act authorised by the registration infringes a patent under the Patents Act 1994; or
a court has determined that the declaration made under regulation 23(2) contains a statement that is false or misleading in a material particular or omits to disclose any matter that is material to the application; and
that the determination mentioned in sub-paragraph (a)(i) or (ii) is final.
For the purposes of paragraph (1)(b), a determination is final if it is not subject to further appeal.
Prescribed time for cancellation of registration of therapeutic product for non‑payment of retention fee
For the purposes of section 37(2) of the Act, the prescribed time is 60 days after the anniversary of the date of the registration of the therapeutic product.
Offences for making false declaration
A person who, when making a declaration under regulation 23(2) or (8)(b)(iii) —
makes any statement or furnishes any document which the person knows or has reason to believe is false in a material particular; or
by the intentional suppression of any material fact, furnishes information which is misleading,shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Protection of confidential supporting information relating to innovative therapeutic product applications
Without prejudice to section 66 of the Act, where the Authority receives an innovative therapeutic product application with confidential supporting information, the Authority, during the protected period in relation to such confidential supporting information —
must take reasonable steps to ensure that the confidential supporting information is kept confidential to the Authority; and
must not use that confidential supporting information for the purpose of determining whether to grant any other application to register a therapeutic product.
In this regulation and regulation 27, unless the context otherwise requires —
“confidential information” includes —
trade secrets; and
information that has commercial value that would be, or would be likely to be, diminished by disclosure;
“confidential supporting information” means confidential information given —
in, or in relation to, an innovative therapeutic product application; and
about the therapeutic product that is the subject of that application;
“innovative therapeutic product application” means an application to register a therapeutic product that refers to a substance —
that is an ingredient in the manufacture or preparation of the therapeutic product to which the application relates; and
that has not, before that application is received by the Authority, been referred to as an ingredient in the manufacture or preparation of any other therapeutic product in any other application to register that therapeutic product under the Act;
“protected period”, in relation to confidential supporting information relating to an innovative therapeutic product application received by the Authority, means a period of 5 years after the date that application is received by the Authority.
Circumstances where protection under regulation 26 does not apply
Despite regulation 26, the Authority may, during the protected period in relation to confidential supporting information —
disclose that confidential supporting information, or use that confidential supporting information for the purpose of determining whether to grant any other application to register a therapeutic product —
with the consent of the applicant who made the application to which the confidential supporting information relates; or
if that disclosure or use is, in the opinion of the Authority, necessary to protect the health or safety of members of the public;
disclose that confidential supporting information to a Government department or statutory body for the purpose of facilitating or assisting such Government department or statutory body in carrying out its duties if, in the opinion of the Authority, the Government department or statutory body, as the case may be, will take reasonable steps to ensure the confidential supporting information is kept confidential; or
disclose that confidential supporting information to, if so requested by, any one or more of the following:
the World Health Organization;
the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations;
any regulatory agency of a country that is a party to the Agreement establishing the World Trade Organization adopted at Marrakesh on 15 April 1994;
any Advisory Committee established under section 10 of the Act.
The power to grant consent under paragraph (1)(a)(i) may be exercised by a person (P) other than the applicant mentioned in that paragraph if —
that applicant —
has notified the Authority in writing that P may grant that consent; and
has not notified the Authority in writing that P’s authority to grant that consent has been withdrawn; or
that applicant’s rights in respect of the relevant confidential supporting information have been transferred to P and the applicant or P has notified the Authority in writing of the transfer.
Disclosure of information on applications for registration
For the purposes of section 66(2)(d) of the Act, the Authority may from time to time disclose, for the information of the public and in the manner determined by the Authority, such particulars of applications for the registration of therapeutic products which it receives as it may determine, provided that the particulars to be disclosed under this regulation exclude —
any trade secret; and
any information that has commercial value that would be, or would be likely to be, diminished by the disclosure.
Registration exclusivity
Where —
information relating to the safety or efficacy of a therapeutic product has been provided to the Authority by an applicant in support of the application for the registration of that therapeutic product; and
the Authority has registered that therapeutic product (called the earlier registration),the Authority may not, for a period of 5 years after the date of the earlier registration, register, on the application of any other person, a similar therapeutic product on the basis of the earlier registration, unless the registrant of the earlier registration has consented to the registration on that basis.
Part 6
Duty to comply with enforcement requirements
An enforcement officer may conduct routine inspections of —
any premises that are used for the manufacture, supply or storage of therapeutic products; and
any conveyance that is being used for the transport of therapeutic products.
An enforcement officer conducting a routine inspection under paragraph (1) may —
require any person having possession or control of any therapeutic product that is found during the inspection to furnish, without charge, a sample of such therapeutic product for the Authority’s examination; and
take or cause to be taken any photograph of —
the premises or conveyance mentioned in paragraph (1); or
any property or material found on the premises or in the conveyance.
Duty to maintain records of manufacture
A manufacturer of a therapeutic product, other than a healthcare service licensee, must maintain records of —
such information relating to the therapeutic product and its manufacture or assembly as the Authority may specify on the Authority’s website or, if the manufacturer is the holder of a manufacturer’s licence, in the manufacturer’s licence; and
the manufacture of each batch of the therapeutic product and of the tests carried out on each of such batch, in the manner specified on the Authority’s website or in the relevant licence issued by the Authority (if applicable).
The manufacturer must maintain for any therapeutic product the records mentioned in paragraph (1) for the longer of the following periods:
one year after the expiry date of the therapeutic product;
5 years after the date of manufacture of the therapeutic product.
A manufacturer of a therapeutic product who fails to comply with paragraph (1) or (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
A person who, in compliance or purported compliance with paragraph (1), furnishes the Authority or an enforcement officer with any record which the person knows is false or misleading shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Duty to maintain records of receipt and supply
Paragraphs (2) and (3) apply to a person (P) who is —
a licensee or registrant of a therapeutic product; or
the supplier of a therapeutic product in accordance with regulation 47, 49, 51, 58(1)(b), (c) or (d) or 60A(3) or (4).
P must —
if P is not the manufacturer of the therapeutic product, maintain a record of every receipt by P of the therapeutic product;
maintain a record of every supply by P of the therapeutic product; and
produce for inspection by the Authority or an enforcement officer the record of every receipt or supply as and when required by the Authority or enforcement officer.
P must ensure that every record mentioned in paragraph (2) —
contains, in relation to each receipt by P of the therapeutic product, all of the following information:
the proprietary name or appropriate non‑proprietary name of the therapeutic product, if the therapeutic product is supplied by a manufacturer, importer or wholesaler, as the case may be;
the date on which the therapeutic product is received;
the name and address of the person from whom the therapeutic product is received;
the quantity of the therapeutic product received;
the identification number (including the control number, lot number, batch number or serial number) of the therapeutic product received;
contains, in relation to each supply by P of the therapeutic product, all of the following information:
the proprietary name or appropriate non‑proprietary name of the therapeutic product;
the date on which the therapeutic product is supplied;
the name and address of the person to whom the therapeutic product is supplied;
the quantity of the therapeutic product supplied;
the identification number (including the control number, lot number, batch number or serial number) of the therapeutic product supplied; and
is retained for at least 2 years after the date on which the therapeutic product is so supplied to another person.
A person who fails to comply with paragraph (2) or (3) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
A person who, in compliance or purported compliance with paragraph (2) or (3), furnishes the Authority or an enforcement officer with any record which the person knows is false or misleading shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Duty to maintain records of defects and adverse effects
Every manufacturer, importer or registrant of a therapeutic product must —
maintain a record of every event or other occurrence that reveals any defect in the therapeutic product or that concerns any adverse effect arising from the use of the therapeutic product; and
produce such record for inspection by the Authority or an enforcement officer as and when required by the Authority or enforcement officer.
A person mentioned in paragraph (1) must ensure that every record mentioned in that paragraph —
contains all of the following information:
the proprietary name or appropriate non‑proprietary name of the therapeutic product which is defective or of which an adverse effect has arisen from its use;
the date on which the person first became aware of the event or occurrence;
the identification number or mark (including the control number, lot number, batch number or serial number) of the therapeutic product;
the nature of the defect or adverse effect;
any other information that the Authority may specify in writing; and
is retained for at least 2 years after the expiry date of the therapeutic product.
A person who fails to comply with paragraph (1) or (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
A person who, in compliance or purported compliance with paragraph (1) or (2), furnishes the Authority or an enforcement officer with any record which the person knows is false or misleading shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Duty to report defects and adverse effects
For the purposes of section 42(1)(a) of the Act, every manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant of a therapeutic product must, upon becoming aware of any defect in the therapeutic product, report the defect to the Authority —
if the defect represents a serious threat to persons or public health, within 48 hours; or
in all other cases, within 15 days,after the manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant, as the case may be, first receives notice of the defect.
For the purposes of section 42(1)(b) of the Act, every manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant of a therapeutic product must, upon becoming aware of any serious adverse reaction arising from the use of the therapeutic product, report the serious adverse reaction to the Authority immediately, but in any case no later than 15 days after the manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant first becomes aware of the serious adverse reaction.
In this regulation, “serious adverse reaction” means an adverse effect that is unintended and occurs in association with the use or administration of a therapeutic product at doses normally used in humans for prophylaxis, diagnosis or therapy of a disease or for the restoration, correction or modification of a physiological function, and that —
may result in a person’s death;
may threaten a person’s life;
results in a person being hospitalised or prolongs a person’s existing stay in hospital;
results in a person’s persistent or significant disability or incapacity;
results in a congenital anomaly or birth defect; or
is judged to be medically important even though the effect might not be immediately life-threatening or result in death or hospitalisation, but may jeopardise the person’s health or may require intervention to prevent the person’s death or one of the other outcomes mentioned in sub-paragraphs (c), (d) and (e).
Duty to notify Authority concerning recall
For the purposes of section 44(1) of the Act, every manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant of a therapeutic product who intends to recall a therapeutic product must immediately, but in any case no later than 24 hours before the start of the intended recall, notify the Authority of, and the reasons for, the intended recall.
The notice in paragraph (1) must be made in such form and manner as the Authority may require.
Where the Authority has been notified of the intended recall of a therapeutic product under paragraph (1), the Authority may by written notice require the manufacturer, importer, supplier or registrant of the therapeutic product to do either or both of the following:
investigate the matter occasioning the recall of the therapeutic product and provide a report of the findings of the investigation;
take such other measures as the Authority thinks necessary.
A person to whom a notice in paragraph (3) is given must comply with the notice at the person’s own cost and within the time specified in the notice or, if no time is specified in the notice, within a reasonable time after the date of the notice.
A person who fails to comply with paragraph (4) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Duty of licensed manufacturer
Without prejudice to any other provision in this Part, a holder of a manufacturer’s licence for a therapeutic product —
must ensure, and maintain objective evidence to establish, that the manufacture of the therapeutic product complies with the Pharmaceutical Inspection Convention and Pharmaceutical Inspection Co-operation Scheme Guide to Good Manufacturing Practice for Medicinal Products;
must provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities as are necessary for carrying out, in accordance with the holder’s licence, such stages of the manufacture of the therapeutic product as are undertaken by the holder;
must not carry out any stages of manufacture of the therapeutic product in any premises not specified in the holder’s licence;
must provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities for the handling and storage of the therapeutic product as are necessary to prevent the deterioration of the therapeutic product while it is in the holder’s ownership, possession or control;
must only use the premises specified in the holder’s licence, or such other premises as may be approved from time to time by the Authority, for handling or storing the therapeutic product;
must carry out, or arrange for a testing laboratory as specified in the licence to carry out, tests on the strength, quality and purity of the therapeutic product to ensure that the standards of the therapeutic product comply with any applicable standard set by the Authority for the therapeutic product;
must conduct all manufacturing operations in such a way as to ensure that the therapeutic product is of the correct identity and conforms with the applicable standards of strength, quality and purity; and
must ensure that any tests for determining conformity with the applicable standards and specifications applying to the therapeutic product are, unless otherwise provided in the licence, applied to samples taken after all manufacturing processes have been completed, or at such earlier stage in the manufacture as may be approved by the Authority.
Duty of licensed importer
Without prejudice to any other provision in this Part, a holder of an importer’s licence for a therapeutic product —
must ensure, and maintain objective evidence to establish, that the handling and storage of the therapeutic product complies with any standard set out by the Authority on the Authority’s website for the therapeutic product;
must provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities for the handling and storage of the therapeutic product as are necessary to prevent the deterioration of the therapeutic product while it is in the holder’s ownership, possession or control; and
must not use, for any purpose mentioned in paragraph (b), any premises other than the premises specified in the holder’s licence, or such other premises as may be approved from time to time by the Authority.
Duty of licensed wholesaler
Without prejudice to any other provision in this Part, a holder of a wholesaler’s licence for a therapeutic product —
must ensure, and maintain objective evidence to establish, that the handling, storage and distribution of the therapeutic product complies with any standard set out by the Authority on the Authority’s website for the therapeutic product;
may only supply the therapeutic product by wholesale to a person who may lawfully supply such therapeutic products in accordance with the Act;
must provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities for the handling, storage and distribution of the therapeutic product as are necessary to prevent the deterioration of the therapeutic product while it is in the holder’s ownership, possession or control; and
must not use, for any purpose mentioned in paragraph (c), any premises other than the premises specified in the holder’s licence, or such other premises as may be approved from time to time by the Authority.
Responsible person
A licensee must appoint one or more persons as a responsible person to be named as such in the licence.
The licensee must ensure that —
the responsible person has adequate knowledge of the activities to be carried out and of the procedures to be performed under the licence;
the responsible person has relevant working experience relating to those activities and procedures;
in the case of a manufacturer’s licence, the responsible person named in the licence has practical experience in production supervision or in testing and checking to ensure the quality of therapeutic products or related health products;
in the case of an importer’s licence or wholesaler’s licence for the import or supply of any therapeutic product that is not registered at the request of a qualified practitioner for the use of the qualified practitioner’s patient, the responsible person named in the licence is a qualified pharmacist or such other person as the Authority may approve;
in the case of an importer’s licence or a wholesaler’s licence for the import or supply by wholesale of prescription-only medicine or pharmacy-only medicine, the responsible person named in the licence is a qualified pharmacist or such other person as the Authority may approve; and
at any time, there is at least one responsible person who is contactable by the Authority by way of a mobile telephone number or an email address.
The licensee must ensure that the responsible person discharges the duties imposed on such a person by the terms of the licence.
The licensee must ensure that no person, other than the person or persons named as the responsible person in the licence, may act as the responsible person.
Offence for contravention of duties
A licensee who fails to comply with regulation 36, 37, 38 or 39 shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Changes affecting licence
Every licensee must notify the Authority of —
any change or proposed change to any particulars furnished by the licensee to the Authority in relation to the application for the licensee’s licence; and
any change or proposed change that significantly affects the activities of the licensee that are authorised by that licence.
A notice under paragraph (1) must —
be made in such form and manner as the Authority may require;
be submitted within such time as the Authority may specify in the conditions of the licence;
be accompanied by such particulars, information, documents and samples as the Authority may require;
be accompanied by the relevant fee; and
if required by the Authority, be accompanied by a statutory declaration by the licensee verifying any information contained in or relating to the notice.
A licensee must not, without the prior approval of the Authority, make any change that significantly affects the activities of the licensee that are authorised by the licensee’s licence.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (3) must be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website.
For the purposes of paragraphs (1) and (3), a change that significantly affects the activities of a licensee that are authorised by the licensee’s licence includes a change of one or more of the following:
the premises where the licensee operates;
the facilities and equipment used by the licensee;
the operations and processes carried out by the licensee;
the responsible person mentioned in regulation 39.
A licensee who fails to comply with paragraph (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
A licensee who —
in compliance or purported compliance with paragraph (1), furnishes the Authority with any notice under paragraph (1) which the licensee knows is false or misleading; or
fails to comply with paragraph (3),shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Changes concerning registered therapeutic product
A registrant of a registered therapeutic product must, unless the change is of a type specified on the Authority’s website to be one for which the Authority’s approval is not required, obtain prior approval from the Authority before effecting —
any change to any particulars provided in relation to the registration of the therapeutic product; or
any change that may affect the quality, safety or efficacy of the therapeutic product.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (1) must —
be made in such form and manner as the Authority may require;
be submitted within such time as the Authority may specify in the conditions of the registration of the therapeutic product;
be accompanied by such particulars, information, documents and samples as the Authority may require;
be accompanied by the relevant fee; and
if required by the Authority, be accompanied by a statutory declaration by the registrant verifying any information contained in or relating to the application.
Where the Authority’s approval is required under paragraph (1), the registrant of the therapeutic product must ensure that no supply is made of the therapeutic product that is subject to the proposed change until after the Authority has given its approval for the change.
A registrant of a therapeutic product who fails to comply with paragraph (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
A registrant of a therapeutic product who —
in compliance or purported compliance with paragraph (1), furnishes the Authority with any information under paragraph (1) which the registrant knows is false or misleading; or
fails to comply with paragraph (3),shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Information on validity of data submitted to or considered by Authority
A registrant of a therapeutic product must, within 15 days after receiving any information that adversely affects the validity of any data furnished by the registrant to the Authority relating to the quality, safety or efficacy of any therapeutic product to which the registrant’s registration relates, inform the Authority of such information.
A registrant of a therapeutic product who fails to comply with paragraph (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
A registrant of a therapeutic product who, in compliance or purported compliance with paragraph (1), furnishes the Authority with any information which the registrant knows is false or misleading, shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
Submission of benefit-risk evaluation reports
The Authority may require any registrant of a therapeutic product to submit, within the timelines specified by the Authority, a benefit-risk evaluation report relating to the therapeutic product.
Where the Authority has not specified any timelines within which a benefit-risk evaluation report is required to be submitted, a registrant of a therapeutic product who is required by the Authority to submit such a report must submit the report —
for an initial period of 2 years, at intervals of 6 months commencing from either the date of registration of the therapeutic product, or its international birth date; and
annually, for the next 3 years.
A person who fails to provide a benefit-risk evaluation report —
as required by the Authority under paragraph (1); or
within the timelines stipulated under paragraph (2),shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
In paragraph (2)(a), “international birth date”, for a therapeutic product, means the date of the first marketing approval granted to any person for the sale of the therapeutic product in any country in the world.
Duty to carry out risk management plan
The Authority may, for the purposes of minimising risks relating to unsafe and inefficacious use of therapeutic products, direct a registrant of a therapeutic product to implement a risk management plan which includes, but is not limited to, the following:
producing and distributing educational material;
producing and distributing safety information;
performing clinical studies of the therapeutic product;
implementing active surveillance programmes of the therapeutic product;
implementing programmes to restrict the supply of the therapeutic product.
A registrant of a registered therapeutic product who fails to comply with a direction of the Authority under paragraph (1) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
Part 7
Compounding of therapeutic products at approved permanent premises, etc., of specified healthcare service licensees without manufacturer’s licence
A specified healthcare service licensee may compound a therapeutic product without holding a manufacturer’s licence, if —
the therapeutic product is compounded from an active ingredient or another therapeutic product;
the final form or packaging of the compounded therapeutic product is not available or marketed for commercial supply in Singapore;
the compounding is carried out —
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](ii)where the therapeutic product is compounded by a specified healthcare service licensee —
at any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance of the specified healthcare service licensee or, in the case of a sterile therapeutic product, at a practice setting within the approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance where standards established for the operation of clean rooms and the preparation of sterile products are in place and properly documented; and
by or under the supervision of a qualified practitioner or a qualified pharmacist who is a personnel of the specified healthcare service licensee; and
an appropriate expiry date, either in accordance with standards set out in any specified publication or supported by a stability study, accompanies the compounded therapeutic product.
In addition to the requirements in paragraph (1), the therapeutic product must be compounded in accordance with the written instructions of a qualified practitioner, if —
the therapeutic product is for the use of any patient under the care of the qualified practitioner; and
the therapeutic product contains an active ingredient specified in Part 1 of the Second Schedule or is within any class of therapeutic products specified in Part 2 of that Schedule.
Paragraph (2) does not apply if the compounding consists only of repacking for the purpose of dispensing the therapeutic product.
It does not matter whether the patient mentioned in paragraph (2) is or is not a patient —
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](b)at the approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance of the specified healthcare service licensee at which the compounding is carried out.
A therapeutic product compounded under paragraph (1) by a specified healthcare service licensee who is authorised to provide an outpatient dental service, outpatient medical service or outpatient renal dialysis service at any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance, must not be supplied to any of the following unless the approval of the Authority has been obtained for the supply:
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](b)any approved permanent premises of the specified healthcare service licensee (other than the approved permanent premises at which the therapeutic product was compounded);
any approved permanent premises of another specified healthcare service licensee.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (5) must be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website.
For the purposes of section 45 of the Act, a specified healthcare service licensee who compounds a therapeutic product under paragraph (1) must ensure that the therapeutic product is compounded in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (1)(c) and (d), and, if applicable, paragraph (2).
A person who fails to comply with paragraph (7) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
For the purposes of section 41 of the Act, the Authority may require a specified healthcare service licensee who compounds a therapeutic product under paragraph (1) to furnish records of any stability study mentioned in paragraph (1)(d).
Transfer of therapeutic products by specified healthcare service licensees without wholesaler’s licence
A specified healthcare service licensee (other than an outpatient dental service licensee, outpatient medical service licensee or outpatient renal dialysis licensee) (called in this paragraph A) may, in the case of a therapeutic product compounded by A under regulation 46(1) at any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance, transfer A’s stock of the therapeutic product at the approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance (as the case may be) to any of the following without holding a wholesaler’s licence:
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](b)another approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance of A;
any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance of another specified healthcare service licensee.
A specified healthcare service licensee who is an outpatient dental service licensee, outpatient medical service licensee or outpatient renal dialysis service licensee (called in this paragraph B) may, in the case of a therapeutic product compounded by B under regulation 46(1) at any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance, transfer B’s stock of the therapeutic product at the approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance (as the case may be) to any of the following without holding a wholesaler’s licence, if the approval of the Authority has been obtained under regulation 46(5) for the transfer:
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](b)any approved permanent premises of B;
any approved permanent premises of another specified healthcare service licensee.
A specified healthcare service licensee (called in this paragraph C) may, in the case of a therapeutic product that is imported by C under regulation 51 or imported by a licensed importer under regulation 58(1)(f), transfer C’s stock of the therapeutic product to another specified healthcare service licensee without holding a wholesaler’s licence.
Compounding of therapeutic products at licensed retail pharmacies without manufacturer’s licence
The holder of a pharmacy licence relating to a licensed retail pharmacy may compound a therapeutic product without holding a manufacturer’s licence, if —
the therapeutic product is compounded from an active ingredient or another therapeutic product;
the final form or packaging of the compounded therapeutic product is not available or marketed for commercial supply in Singapore;
the compounding is carried out —
at the licensed retail pharmacy;
by a qualified pharmacist or a person acting under the supervision of a qualified pharmacist;
for the purposes and under the conditions described in paragraph (2), (3) or (4), whichever is applicable; and
in the case of a sterile therapeutic product, at premises where standards established for the operation of clean rooms and the preparation of sterile products are in place and properly documented; and
an appropriate expiry date, either in accordance with standards set out in any specified publication or supported by a stability study, accompanies the compounded therapeutic product.
If the therapeutic product is to be compounded for the use of any patient under the care of a qualified practitioner and it contains an active ingredient specified in Part 1 of the Second Schedule or is within any class of therapeutic products specified in Part 2 of that Schedule, it must be compounded in accordance with —
a valid prescription given by the qualified practitioner; or
the written instructions of the qualified practitioner, if the qualified practitioner is a personnel of a specified healthcare service licensee.
Paragraph (2) does not apply if the compounding consists only of repacking for the purpose of dispensing the therapeutic product.
If the therapeutic product is to be compounded for the purpose of supplying for use on a ship, the therapeutic product must —
be required to be carried on board the ship under the Merchant Shipping (Medical Stores) Regulations (Rg 3), the Merchant Shipping (Maritime Labour Convention) (Medicines and Medical Equipment) Regulations 2014 (G.N. No. 181/2014) or any other written law, for the treatment of persons on board that ship; and
be compounded in accordance with such terms and conditions as the Authority may specify in the holder’s pharmacy licence.
If the therapeutic product is to be compounded for the purpose of supplying for use on an aircraft, the therapeutic product must —
form part of the medical supplies required under the Air Navigation Order (O 2) or any other written law, for the treatment of persons on board the aircraft; and
be compounded in accordance with such terms and conditions as the Authority may specify in the holder’s pharmacy licence.
For the purposes of section 45 of the Act, any holder of a retail pharmacy licence who compounds a therapeutic product under paragraph (1) must ensure that the therapeutic product is compounded in accordance with the requirements in paragraph (1)(c) and (d), and, if applicable, paragraph (2), (4) or (5).
A person who fails to comply with paragraph (6) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $20,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 12 months or to both.
For the purposes of section 41 of the Act, the Authority may require the holder of a retail pharmacy licence who compounds a therapeutic product under paragraph (1) to furnish records of any stability study mentioned in paragraph (1)(d).
Wholesale supply by holders of pharmacy licences without wholesaler’s licence
The holder of a pharmacy licence may supply a therapeutic product by wholesale without holding a wholesaler’s licence, if the supply —
is to a healthcare service licensee;
is for use on a ship or an aircraft in accordance with the requirements in regulation 5(1)(b)(iv) or (v), respectively;
is for the purpose of scientific education or research and development, or for a non‑clinical purpose;
is to a Government department or statutory board for the provision of public services;
is between licensed retail pharmacy outlets under the same management chain; or
consists of the supply of registered therapeutic products to companies outside Singapore for the purpose of any business or trade carried out by those companies.
Re-labelling of therapeutic products without manufacturer’s licence
Without prejudice to regulation 20, a person who imports, or supplies by wholesale, any therapeutic product that is not registered, at the request of a qualified practitioner for the use of the qualified practitioner’s patient, may attach a different label to the therapeutic product without holding a manufacturer’s licence.
Import of therapeutic products for patients’ use without importer’s licence
Subject to paragraph (3), a specified healthcare service licensee may, without holding an importer’s licence, import a therapeutic product that is not registered, if the therapeutic product —
is required by, and on the written instructions of, a qualified practitioner who is a personnel of the specified healthcare service licensee; and
is for the use of the qualified practitioner’s patient.
Subject to paragraph (3), the holder of a pharmacy licence may import, without holding an importer’s licence, a therapeutic product that is not registered, if the therapeutic product is intended for the use by a patient of a qualified practitioner pursuant to a valid prescription given by the qualified practitioner.
The Authority’s prior approval must be obtained for each consignment of a therapeutic product that is imported under paragraph (1) or (2), and the amount imported must not exceed —
a total dosage of 3 months per patient as recommended by the manufacturer of the therapeutic product; or
such other quantity as approved by the Authority.
An application for the Authority’s approval under paragraph (3) must be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website.
Import of therapeutic products for personal use without importer’s licence
Subject to paragraph (2), a person may, without holding an importer’s licence, import for that person’s personal use or for the use of any member of that person’s family a therapeutic product not containing —
any psychotropic substance; or
an amount greater than the amount specified in the second column of the Seventh Schedule of any substance specified in the first column of that Schedule.
The amount of the therapeutic product imported under paragraph (1) must not exceed a total dosage of 3 months per individual as recommended by —
the manufacturer of the therapeutic product; or
a foreign doctor or dentist by way of a written recommendation, or a qualified practitioner by way of a valid prescription.
Wholesale of therapeutic products imported solely for export without wholesaler’s licence
Without prejudice to any other provision in these Regulations, a person who holds a valid importer’s licence may supply by wholesale, without a wholesaler’s licence, a therapeutic product that is imported solely for the purpose of export, if the supply is in accordance with such terms and conditions as the Authority may specify in the importer’s licence.
Import of health products by licensed manufacturer without importer’s licence
The holder of a manufacturer’s licence may import any health product without holding an importer’s licence, if the health product is required for the purpose of carrying out the manufacture of a therapeutic product in accordance with the conditions of the manufacturer’s licence.
Wholesale of self-manufactured therapeutic products without wholesaler’s licence
The holder of a manufacturer’s licence may supply by wholesale any therapeutic product manufactured by the holder under the manufacturer’s licence without holding a wholesaler’s licence, if the holder is able to provide and maintain, or ensure the provision and maintenance of, such staff, premises, equipment and facilities for the distribution of the therapeutic product as are necessary to prevent the deterioration of the therapeutic product while it is in the holder’s ownership, possession or control.
Wholesale of therapeutic products to ships or aircraft without wholesaler’s licence
A person may supply by wholesale any therapeutic product to a ship without holding a wholesaler’s licence, if the therapeutic product is not registered and is imported in accordance with the requirements in regulation 5(1)(b)(iv).
A person may supply by wholesale any therapeutic product to an aircraft without holding a wholesaler’s licence, if the therapeutic product is not registered and is imported in accordance with the requirements in regulation 5(1)(b)(v).
Therapeutic products for research or non‑clinical purposes
A manufacturer’s licence is not required for the manufacture of a therapeutic product, if the manufacture —
is solely for —
the purpose of scientific education or research and development; or
a non-clinical purpose; and
is not for any supply to the public.
A manufacturer of a therapeutic product for any of the purposes mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)(i) or (ii) is not required to maintain records of manufacture in compliance with regulation 31.
A person may supply a therapeutic product for any of the purposes mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)(i) or (ii) without holding a wholesaler’s licence if there is no supply of the therapeutic product to the public.
Part 8
Prescribed exceptions
For the purposes of section 15(1) of the Act and without prejudice to any other provision in these Regulations, the prescribed exceptions to the prohibition in that section against the supply of a health product that is not registered, are the following:
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](b)the supply of a therapeutic product compounded under regulation 46 by a specified healthcare service licensee (other than an outpatient dental service licensee, outpatient medical service licensee or outpatient renal dialysis service licensee) at any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance of the specified healthcare service licensee to any of the following:
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](ii)another approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance of that specified healthcare service licensee;
any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance of another specified healthcare service licensee (other than an outpatient dental service licensee, outpatient medical service licensee or outpatient renal dialysis service licensee);
the supply of a therapeutic product compounded under regulation 46 by a specified healthcare service licensee (other than an outpatient dental service licensee, outpatient medical service licensee or outpatient renal dialysis service licensee) to a patient of a qualified practitioner, who is a personnel of any specified healthcare service licensee;
(ca)the supply of a therapeutic product compounded under regulation 46 by a specified healthcare service licensee who is an outpatient dental service licensee, outpatient medical service licensee or outpatient renal dialysis service licensee at any approved permanent premises, temporary premises or approved conveyance, for the use of a patient of a qualified practitioner and, if the supply for this purpose involves the supply by the specified healthcare service licensee to —
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](ii)another approved permanent premises of the specified healthcare service licensee; or
any approved permanent premises of another specified healthcare service licensee,the Authority’s approval for the supply has been obtained under regulation 46(5);
the supply of a therapeutic product that has been compounded at a licensed retail pharmacy in accordance with, and supplied for the purposes mentioned in, regulation 48;
the supply of a therapeutic product by a qualified practitioner to the qualified practitioner’s patient;
the supply of a therapeutic product by a licensed importer to a specified healthcare service licensee in accordance with the requirements in regulation 5(1)(b)(i);
the supply by a specified healthcare service licensee of a therapeutic product that is imported under regulation 51(1) to a patient of a qualified practitioner, who is a personnel of the specified healthcare service licensee;
the supply of a therapeutic product by a holder of a pharmacy licence pursuant to a valid prescription given by a qualified practitioner for the use of the qualified practitioner’s patient under regulation 51(2);
the supply of a therapeutic product by a person, who has imported the therapeutic product under regulation 52, to a member of the person’s family;
the supply of a therapeutic product for use on a ship or an aircraft in accordance with the requirements in regulation 5(1)(b)(iv) or (v), respectively;
the supply of a therapeutic product for —
the purpose of scientific education or research and development; or
a non-clinical purpose,provided there is no supply of the therapeutic product to the public;
the supply by wholesale of a therapeutic product that does not contain a psychotropic substance or is not a controlled drug and is —
manufactured solely for export; or
imported solely for re-export;
the export of any therapeutic product, subject to the approval of the Authority under regulation 8 or 9, where applicable.
In paragraph (1)(l), “controlled drug” has the same meaning as in the Misuse of Drugs Act 1973.
Supply of therapeutic products compounded under contractual agreement with licensed manufacturer
Without limiting any other provision in these Regulations, the prohibition in section 15(1) of the Act against the supply of a health product, unless the health product is registered, does not apply to a therapeutic product that is compounded in accordance with paragraph (2) and is supplied in any of the following cases:
by a licensed manufacturer of the therapeutic product to —
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](ii)a specified healthcare service licensee for the use of a patient of the specified healthcare service licensee;
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](c)by a specified healthcare service licensee to a patient of the specified healthcare service licensee.
For the purposes of paragraph (1), the therapeutic product must be compounded —
under an agreement between the licensed manufacturer of the therapeutic product and the specified healthcare service licensee mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)(ii) or (c);
in accordance with the chemical composition and the written instructions of a qualified practitioner who is a personnel of —
[Deleted by S 811/2023 wef 18/12/2023](ii)the specified healthcare service licensee mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)(ii) or (c) (as the case may be) for the use solely by or in connection with the patient mentioned in that paragraph;
in premises approved by the Authority; and
in accordance with the terms and conditions specified in the manufacturer’s licence held by the licensed manufacturer of the therapeutic product.
Paragraph (2)(b) does not apply to prohibit the supply of a therapeutic product that is not registered to any patient of a specified healthcare service licensee mentioned in paragraph (1)(a)(ii) or (c), if the requirements mentioned in paragraph (2)(a), (c) and (d) are satisfied and the compounding consists only of repacking for the purpose of dispensing the therapeutic product.
Previously registered therapeutic products
A supplier of a registered therapeutic product may continue to supply the therapeutic product, before its expiry date, by administration to a person or by retail sale, despite a cancellation of its registration and despite the prohibition in section 15(1) of the Act against the supply of a health product that is not registered, if —
the cancellation of the registration is either made by the Authority under section 37(2) of the Act or upon the application of the registrant under section 37(3) of the Act;
the supplier has taken possession of the therapeutic product before the cancellation of its registration; and
the Authority does not direct a recall of the therapeutic product from the market.
Part 8A
Manufacture, import and supply of emergency therapeutic product
For the purposes of section 12(1) of the Act and without prejudice to regulations 30, 31, 33, 34 and 35, the manufacture of an emergency therapeutic product for or on behalf of the Government is a prescribed exception to the prohibition in that provision against the manufacture of a therapeutic product without a licence.
For the purposes of section 13(1) of the Act and without prejudice to regulations 30, 33, 34 and 35, the import of an emergency therapeutic product for or on behalf of the Government is a prescribed exception to the prohibition in that provision against the import of a therapeutic product without a licence.
For the purposes of section 14(1) of the Act and without prejudice to regulations 30, 32, 34 and 35, the supply by wholesale of an emergency therapeutic product for or on behalf of the Government is a prescribed exception to the prohibition in that provision against the supply by wholesale of a therapeutic product without a licence.
For the purposes of section 15(1) of the Act and without prejudice to regulations 30, 32, 34 and 35, the supply of an emergency therapeutic product for or on behalf of the Government is a prescribed exception to the prohibition in that provision against the supply of a therapeutic product that is not registered.
In this regulation —
“civil defence emergency” means a civil defence emergency declared under section 102(1) of the Civil Defence Act 1986;
“emergency therapeutic product” means a therapeutic product that is for such time designated by the Minister as an emergency therapeutic product for the purposes of this regulation, where —
the therapeutic product is needed —
to treat any medical condition resulting from a civil defence emergency; (ii)to prevent the spread or possible outbreak of an infectious disease; or (iii)to treat an infectious disease or any medical condition associated with an infectious disease,where the medical condition or infectious disease is potentially serious or life-threatening; and
in the opinion of the Authority, there is —
preliminary scientific evidence that the therapeutic product has the potential —
to treat the medical condition resulting from the civil defence emergency;
to prevent the spread or possible outbreak of the infectious disease; or (C)to treat the infectious disease or any medical condition associated with the infectious disease,as the case may be; and
ongoing scientific evidence that the potential benefits of the therapeutic product outweigh the known risks of the therapeutic product, to a person on whom the therapeutic product is used;
“infectious disease” has the meaning given by section 2 of the Infectious Diseases Act 1976.
Part 9
Certification of therapeutic products intended for export
The Authority may, on the application of a person who intends to export a therapeutic product, issue to the person a certificate certifying —
in a case where the therapeutic product is registered under the Act, that it is so registered; or
in a case where the therapeutic product is not so registered, that it complies with such standards or requirements as may be specified in the certificate.
An application for a certificate under paragraph (1) must —
be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website; and
be accompanied by the relevant fee.
Certificate of manufacturing standard of therapeutic products
The Authority may, on the application of a person who manufactures a therapeutic product (called the manufacturer) and on being satisfied, after completion of an assessment of conformity, that the manufacturer conforms to an applicable Good Manufacturing Practice Standard, issue a GMP Certificate to the manufacturer subject to any terms and conditions as the Authority thinks fit.
Every GMP Certificate issued is valid for a period specified in the certificate, being not longer than 3 years starting on the date of commencement of the assessment mentioned in paragraph (1).
An application for a GMP Certificate must —
be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website; and
be accompanied by the relevant fee.
In this regulation —
“GMP Certificate” means a certificate issued by the Authority to certify compliance with an applicable Good Manufacturing Practice Standard;
“Good Manufacturing Practice Standard” means the Pharmaceutical Inspection Convention and Pharmaceutical Inspection Co-operation Scheme Guide to Good Manufacturing Practice for Medicinal Products and any other good manufacturing practice standard approved by the Authority.
Certificate of distribution standard of therapeutic products
The Authority may, on the application of a person who distributes a therapeutic product and on being satisfied, after completion of an assessment of conformity, that the person conforms to an applicable Good Distribution Practice Standard, issue a GDP Certificate to the person subject to any terms and conditions as the Authority thinks fit.
Every GDP Certificate issued is valid for a period specified in the certificate, being not longer than 3 years starting on the date of commencement of the assessment mentioned in paragraph (1).
An application for a GDP Certificate must —
be made in the form and manner specified on the Authority’s website; and
be accompanied by the relevant fee.
In this regulation —
“GDP Certificate” means a certificate issued by the Authority to certify compliance with an applicable Good Distribution Practice Standard;
“Good Distribution Practice Standard” means the Authority’s Guidance Notes on Good Distribution Practice and any other good distribution practice standard approved by the Authority.
Other certificates or documents
The Authority may, on the application of any person and upon payment of the relevant fee, issue such other certificate or document to the applicant as the Authority thinks fit.
Product quality surveillances
The Authority may at any time conduct a product quality surveillance for the purposes of ensuring that a therapeutic product is not a non-compliant health product within the meaning of section 48(a) of the Act.
The Authority may require a manufacturer, supplier, licensee or registrant of a therapeutic product to furnish, without charge, any number of samples of the therapeutic product for evaluation by the Authority in the product quality surveillance.
A person who fails to comply with a requirement of the Authority under paragraph (2) shall be guilty of an offence and shall be liable on conviction to a fine not exceeding $10,000 or to imprisonment for a term not exceeding 6 months or to both.
Non-compliant therapeutic products
For the purposes of section 48(a)(iii) of the Act, a therapeutic product is considered as being non-compliant if it fails to comply with the product quality characteristics, specifications and labelling approved by the Authority —
at the time of the registration of the therapeutic product; or
under regulation 42.
Confidential information
For the purposes of section 66(2)(d) of the Act, the Authority may disclose any confidential information relating to the quality, safety or efficacy of a therapeutic product, if —
that disclosure is, in the opinion of the Authority, necessary to protect the health or safety of members of the public; or
that disclosure is to a Government department or statutory body in order to enable the Government department or statutory body to perform its public functions.
[Deleted by S 458/2022 wef 01/07/2022]
Psychotropic substances
FIRST SCHEDULERegulation 2(1)Psychotropic substances
1. The following substances: AllobarbitalAlprazolamAmineptine[Deleted by S 219/2017 wef 01/05/2017]AminorexAmobarbitalBarbitalBromazepamBromazolamBrotizolamButalbitalButobarbitalCamazepamCarisoprodolCathineChlordiazepoxideClobazamClonazepamClonazolamClorazepateClotiazepamCloxazolamCyclobarbitalDelorazepamDiazepamDiclazepamEstazolamEthchlorvynolEthinamateEthyl loflazepateEtilamfetamineEtizolamFencamfaminFenproporexFlualprazolamFlubromazolamFludiazepamFlurazepamGlutethimideHalazepamHaloxazolamKetazolamLefetamineLoprazolamLorazepamLormetazepamMazindolMedazepamMefenorexMeprobamateMesocarbMethylphenobarbitalMethyprylonMidazolamNitrazepamNordazepamOxazepamOxazolamPemolinePentazocinePentobarbitalPhenazepamPhenobarbitalPhenterminePinazepamPrazepamSecbutabarbitalTemazepamTetrazepamVinylbitalZolpidem[S 767/2025 wef 01/12/2025][S 817/2024 wef 01/11/2024][S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]2. The stereoisomeric forms or salts of the substances specified in paragraph 1, wherever the existence of such stereoisomeric forms or salts is possible.[S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]3. Any preparation of a product containing one or more of the substances specified in paragraph 1 or 2.
SECOND SCHEDULERegulations 10(1), 46(2) and 48(2)Part 1Active ingredients in prescription-only medicines(±)-4-ethyl-2, 5-dimethoxy-α-phenethylamine (2C-E)2-Deoxy-2-[18F] fluoro-d-glucose2-Phenylcinchoninic acid; 2‑salicylcinchoninic acid3-Di-n-butylaminomethyl-4,5,6-trihydroxyphthalide 5-Phenylhydantoin AbacavirAbataceptAbciximab AbemaciclibAbirateroneAbrocitinibAcalabrutinibAcamprosateAcarboseAcebutololAceclofenacAcemetacinAcepromazineAcetanilideAcetazolamideAcetohexamide AcetorphineAcetylcarbromal AcetylcysteineAcetyldigoxin AcetyldihydrocodeineAcetylmethadolAcetylstrophanthidin Acipimox Acitretin AclidiniumAcrivastine ActinomycinsAcyclovir Adalimumab Adapalene Adefovir Adicillin Adiphenine AdrenalineAdrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)AfatinibAfliberceptAgalsidase alfaAgalsidase betaAgomelatineAlatrofloxacinAlbutrepenonacog alfaAlcaftadineAlclofenac AlclometasoneAlcuroniumAldesleukin Aldosterone AlectinibAlefaceptAlemtuzumab Alendronic acidAlfacalcidolAlfentanil AlfuzosinAlgestoneAlglucosidase alfaAlirocumabAliskirenAllobarbitoneAllopurinolAllylisopropylacetylurea Allyloestrenol AllylprodineAlminoprofen AlmitrineAlogliptinAlosetronAlpelisib[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]AlphacetylmethadolAlphachloraloseAlphadoloneAlphameprodineAlphamethadolAlphaprodineAlphaxaloneAlprazolam AlprenololAlprostadil Alseroxylon AlteplaseAltretamineAmantadineAmbenoniumAmbrisentanAmbroxolAmbuside AmbutoniumAmetazoleAmethocaine[Deleted by S 219/2017 wef 01/05/2017]AmidopyrineAmifostine AmikacinAmilorideAmineptineAminocaproic acidAminoglutethimideAminolevulinic acidAminophylline AminopterinAminorexAmiodaroneAmisulpride AmitriptylineAmivantamabAmlodipineAmmonium lactate AmoxycillinAmphetamineAmphomycinAmphotericin BAmpicillinAmprenavirAmrinoneAmsacrine (M-AMSA) AmylobarbitoneAmylocaineAnagrelideAnastrozole Ancrod Androsterone AndusomeranAngiotensin amide AnidulafunginAnileridineAnistreplase AntazolineApalutamideApixabanApomorphineApraclonidineApramycinApremilastAprepitant Aprobarbitone Aprotinin Aripiprazole ArotinololArsenic trioxideArsphenamine Arteether Artemether Artemisinin ArtesunateArticaineAsciminibAsenapineAsfotase alfaAspoxicillinAstemizole AsunaprevirAtazanavirAtenololAtezolizumabAtogepantAtomoxetineAtorvastatin AtosibanAtovaquone AtracuriumAtropineAuranofin AvacopanAvalglucosidase alfaAvanafilAvelumabAvibactamAxitinibAzacitidineAzacyclonolAzaperone Azapropazone Azasetron AzatadineAzathioprineAzelaic acidAzelastineAzidamphenicolAzidocillinAzilsartanAzithromycinAztreonamBacampicillinBacitracinBaclofen Baloxavir marboxilBambermycin BamipineBarbitoneBarbituric acidBaricitinibBasiliximab Becaplermin Beclamide BeclomethasoneBefunololBekanamycinBelantamab mafodotinBelimumabBelzutifanBemegrideBemiparinBenactyzineBenapryzineBenazeprilBendamustineBendrofluazide Benethamine penicillin BenfluorexBenoxaprofen Benperidol BenralizumabBenserazideBenzamidosalicylic acid Benzathine penicillin Benzbromarone BenzethidineBenzhexolBenziloniumBenzocaine Benzoctamine Benzoestrol BenzphetamineBenzquinamideBenzthiazide BenztropineBenzylfentanylBenzylmorphineBenzylpenicillinBesifloxacinBetahistineBetameprodineBetamethadolBetamethasoneBetaprodineBetaxololBethanechol BethanidineBetiatideBevacizumabBevoniumBezafibrate BezitramideBicalutamide BicisateBictegravirBifonazole BilastineBimatoprost BinimetinibBiperidenBisoprololBleomycinBlinatumomabBoceprevirBoldenone undecenoate Bopindolol BortezomibBosentanBotulinum toxin Brentuximab BretyliumBrexipiprazoleBrigatinibBrimonidineBrinzolamide BrolamfetamineBromazepam BromazolamBromhexineBromocriptineBromodiphenhydramineBromvaletone Brotizolam BudesonideBufexamac BuflomedilBuforminBumadizone calcium Bumetanide BunazosinBuphenineBupivacaineBupranololBuprenorphineBupropionBurosumabBuserelinBuspironeBusulphanButacaineButalbital ButamirateButanilicaineButizide ButobarbitoneButoconazoleButriptylineButropiumButylchloral hydrate CabazitaxelCabergoline CabimicinaCabotegravirCabozantinibCalcipotriol CalcitoninCalcitriolCalcium barbiturate Calcium carbimide Calcium dobesilate CalfactantCamazepam CanagliflozinCanakinumabCandesartan CandicidinCapecitabine CapivasertibCapmatinibCapreomycinCaptodiameCaptopril CaramiphenCarbachol Carbamazepine CarbenicillinCarbenoxoloneCarbetocin Carbidopa CarbimazoleCarboplatin CarboprostCarbromal Carbutamide CarfecillinCarfentanilCarfilzomibCariprazineCarisoprodol Carmustine CarperidineCarprofen CarteololCarvedilol CaspofunginCathine CathinoneCefaclorCefadroxilCefamandoleCefatrizineCefdinir CefepimeCefiximeCefodizimeCefoperazoneCefotaxime CefotiamCefoxitin CefpiromeCefprozil CefsulodinCeftarolineCeftazidimeCeftibuten CeftizoximeCeftolozaneCeftriaxoneCefuroxime Celecoxib Cephalexin Cephaloglycin Cephaloram Cephaloridine Cephalothin Cephazolin Cephradine CeritinibCerivastatinCertolizumabCetrorelixCetuximabChenodeoxycholic acid Chloral hydrate Chlorambucil ChloramphenicolChlorcyclizineChlordiazepoxideChlormadinoneChlormerodrin ChlormethiazoleChlormethineChlormezanoneChlormidazoleChlorothiazide ChloroquineChlorpheniramineChlorphenoxamineChlorphentermineChlorpromazineChlorpropamideChlorprothixene and other derivatives of 9‑methylenethiazantheneChlorquinaldol ChlortetracyclineChlorthalidone and other derivatives of o-chlorobenzene sulphonamide Chlorzoxazone Cholestyramine Choline TheophyllinateChorionic gonadotrophinChromium [51CR]Chromomycin ACiclacillinCiclesonideCiclopiroxCilastatinCilazapril Cilostazol CimetidineCinacalcetCinchocaineCiprofibrate CiprofloxacinCisapride CisatracuriumCisplatin CitalopramCiticoline Cladribine ClarithromycinClascoteroneClavulanic acidClebopride ClemastineClemizoleClenbuterol ClidiniumClindamycinClioquinol Clobazam ClobenzorexClobetasolClobetasoneClobutinolClodronic acid ClofarabineClofazimine ClofedanolClofibrate ClomipheneClomipramineClomocyclineClonazepam ClonazolamClonidineClonitazeneClopamide ClopenthixolClopidogrelCloprostenolClorazepateClorexolone ClorprenalineClostebolClostridiopeptidase A Clotiazepam Clotrimazole Cloxacillin[Deleted by S XXX/2025 wef 01/12/2025]Cloxazolam CloxiquineClozapineCobicistatCobimetinibCodeineCo-dergocrine ColchicineColestipolColimycinColistinCorifollitropin alfaCorticorelinCortisoneCrisaboroleCrisantaspase CrizotinibCropropamide Crotethamide Cyclandelate Cyclarbamate CyclizineCyclobarbitone Cyclofenil Cyclopenthiazide Cyclopentolate Cyclophosphamide CycloserineCyclosporin Cyclothiazide CycrimineCyproheptadineCyproteroneCytarabineDabigatranDabrafenibDacarbazine DaclatasvirDaclizumab DacomitinibDactinomycinDalfopristin DalteparinDanazol DanicopanDanthron DantroleneDapagliflozinDapoxetineDapsone DaptomycinDaratumumabDarbepoetin alfaDarolutamideDarunavirDasabuvirDasatinibDatopotamab deruxtecanDaunorubicinDavesomeranDebrisoquineDeferasiroxDeferiprone DeferoxamineDegarelixDehydroemetineDehydroepiandrosterone (DHEA)DelaprilDelmadinoneDelorazepam DemecariumDemeclocyclineDemoxytocinDenosumabDeoxycholic acidDeoxycortoneDeptropineDeserpidine [Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Desfluorotriamcinolone Desflurane DesipramineDeslanosideDesloratadineDesmopressinDesogestrel DesomorphineDesonideDesoxymethasone DesvenlafaxineDeucravacitinibDexamethasoneDexamphetamineDexetimideDexfenfluramineDexketoprofenDexlansoprazoleDexmedetomidineDexrazoxane [Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]DextromoramideDextropropoxypheneDextrorphanDextrothyroxineDiacetylmorphineDiacetylnalorphineDiamorphineDiampromideDiazepam DiazoxideDibekacinDibenzepinDibucaineDichloralphenazone DichlorophenarsineDichlorphenamideDiclazepamDiclofenacDicloxacillinDidanosine Dienoestrol Dienogest[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Diethylcarbamazine DiethylthiambuteneDifelikefalinDifenoxinDiflucortoloneDiflunisal DigoxinDihydralazineDihydroartemisin DihydrocodeineDihydrocodeinoneDihydroergotamineDihydroergotoxineDihydroetorphineDihydromorphineDihydrostreptomycinDiloxanideDiltiazemDimenhydrinateDimercaprol DimethindeneDimethisoquinDimethisterone DimethothiazineDimethoxanateDimethpyrindene[Deleted by S XXX/2025 wef 01/12/2025]Dimethyl fumarateDimethyl sulphoxide DimethylthiambuteneDimethyltubocurarineDinitronaphthols Dinitrothymols DinoprostDinoprostone Dioxaphetyl butyrateDiperodonDiphenidolDiphenylpyralineDipipanoneDipivefrinDiprophyllineDipyridamole Dipyrone DirithromycinDisopyramideDistigmineDisulfiram Disulphamide DithienylallylaminesDobutamineDocetaxel DolutegravirDomperidone DonanemabDonepezilDopamineDoravirineDoripenemDorzolamideDostarlimabDothiepinDoxapramDoxazosinDoxepinDoxofyllineDoxorubicinDoxycyclineDoxylamineDronedaroneDroperidol DrospirenoneDrostanoloneDrotebanol Drotrecogin alfaDulaglutideDuloxetineDupilumabDurvalumabDutasteride Dydrogesterone Dyflos Ebastine EconazoleEcothiopateEctylurea EculizumabEdoxabanEdoxudine EdrophoniumEfalizumabEfavirenz ElacestrantElasomeranElbasvirEletriptanElobixibatElranatamabEltrombopagElvitegravirEmbramineEmbutramide EmedastineEmeproniumEmicizumabEmpagliflozinEmtricitabineEmylcamate EnalaprilEnalaprilatEncainideEncorafenibEnflurane Enfortumab vedotinEnfuvirtideEnoxaparinEntacapone EntecavirEntrectinibEnzalutamideEpcoritamabEperisoneEphedrineEpicillinEpimestrol EpinastineEpioestriol EpirubicinEpithiazide EplerenoneEpoetin alfaEpoetin betaEpoprostenolEprosartanEptacog alfaEptifibatide EptinezumabEravacyclineErdafitinibErdosteineErenumabErgometrineErgotamine ErgotoxineEribulinErlotinibErtapenemErtugliflozinErythrityl tetranitrate ErythromycinErythropoietinEscitalopramEsketamineEsmololEsomeprazoleEstazolam EstramustineEtafedrineEtanercept EtelcalcetideEthacrynic acidEthambutolEthamivan Ethamsylate Ethchlorvynol Ethebenecid Ethiazide Ethinamate Ethinyloestradiol EthionamideEthisterone Ethoglucid EthoheptazineEthopropazineEthosuximide Ethotoin Ethyl biscoumacetate Ethyl loflazepate Ethyl p-piperidinoacetylaminobenzoate Ethylacetanilide EthylmorphineEthylnoradrenalineEthyloestrenol Ethylstibamine EthynodiolEtidronic acidEtilamfetamineEtizolamEtodolac EtofenamateEtofibrate EtofyllineEtomidateEtonitazeneEtonogestrel EtoposideEtoricoxib EtorphineEtoxeridineEtrasimodEtravirineEtretinate EverolimusEvolocumabExametazimeExemestaneExenatideEzetimibe Famciclovir Famotidine FampridineFamprofazone FamtozinameranFaricimabFazadiniumFebuxostatFedratinibFelbinac Felodipine Felypressin FencamfaminFenclofenac FenetyllineFenfluramineFenofibrate FenoprofenFenoterolFenoverineFenpipramideFenpipraneFenproporexFentanylFenticonazoleFeprazone Ferric carboxymaltose Ferric derisomaltoseFerucarbotranFexofenadineFezolinetantFilgotinibFilgrastim FimasartanFinasteride FinerenoneFingolimodFlavomycinFlavoxateFlecainideFlibanserinFloxuridine FlualprazolamFluanisone FlubromazolamFlucloroloneFlucloxacillinFluconazole FlucytosineFludarabineFludiazepam FludrocortisoneFlufenamic acidFlugestoneFlumazenil FlumedroxoneFlumethasoneFlumethiazide Flunisolide Flunitrazepam Fluocinolone Fluocinonide FluocortoloneFluopromazineFluoro-2-deoxy-d-glucoseFluoroacetamide Fluoroacetanilide Fluorometholone FluorouracilFluothane FluoxetineFluoxymesterone FlupenthixolFluperoloneFluphenazineFluprednideneFluprednisoloneFluprostenolFlurandrenolone FlurazepamFlurbiprofenFluspirilene Flutamide FlutemetamolFluticasoneFluvastatinFluvoxamineFollicle stimulating hormone (FSH) Follitropin alfaFollitropin deltaFondaparinuxFormestane Formosulphathiazole FormoterolFosamprenavirFosaprepitantFoscarnetFosfestrolFosfomycinFosinoprilFosnetupitantFotemustine FramycetinFremanezumabFruquintinibFrusemide FtorafurFulvestrantFumagillinFuraltadone Furazolidone FurethidineFusafungine Fusidic acidGabapentin Gadobenic acidGadobutrolGadodiamide Gadopentetic acidGadoteric acidGadoversetamide [Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Gadoxetic acidGalantamineGalcanezumabGallamineGalliumGalsulfaseGanciclovirGanirelixGatifloxacinGefitinib GemcitabineGemeprost GemfibrozilGemtuzumab ozogamicin GentamicinGestodene Gestrinone GestronolGilteritinibGimeracilGlafenineGlecaprevirGlibenclamideGlibornurideGliclazide Glimepiride Glipizide Gliquidone GlofitamabGlucagonGlutethimideGlyceryl trinitrate Glycopyrrolate GlycopyrroniumGlymidine GolimumabGonadorelinGoserelinGozetotideGramicidinsGranisetronGrazoprevirGrepafloxacinGriseofulvinGuanethidineGuanoclorGuanoxanGuselkumabHachimycinHalazepam Halcinonide HalofantrineHalometasone Haloperidol and other 4-substituted derivatives of N-(3-p-fluorobenzoylpropyl) piperidine Haloprogin Halothane Haloxazolam Heparin [Deleted by S XXX/2025 wef 01/12/2025]Heptabarbitone HeptaminolHexamethoniumHexamethylmelamineHexapropymate HexobarbitoneHexoestrol[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Histrelin acetateHomatropineHomochlorcyclizineHydralazineHydrochlorothiazide HydrocodoneHydrocortisone HydromorphinolHydromorphoneHydroquinoneHydroxychloroquineHydroxycinchoninic HydroxyprogesteroneHydroxyquinolineHydroxyurea HydroxyzineHygromycin B HyoscineIbacitabine Ibandronic acidIbrutinibIbuprofen IdarubicinIdarucizumabIdelalisibIdoxuridine Idrocilamide IdursulfaseIfenprodilIfosfamide IloprostImatinibImidaprilImigluceraseImipenem ImipramineImiquimod InclisiranIndacaterolIndapamideIndinavirIndium pentetreotideIndobufenIndomethacinInfliximab Inotuzumab ozogamicinInterferons IodixanolIodine-131IoflupaneIpilimumabIpratropiumIprindoleIproniazidIrbesartan IrinotecanIsatuximabIsavuconazoniumIsepamicinIsoaminileIsocarboxazid[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]IsoetharineIsoflurane Isomethadone (isoamidone) IsoniazidIsoprenalineIsopropamideIsopyrin IsosorbideIsothipendylIsotretinoinIsoxicam IsoxsuprineIsradipine ItoprideItraconazole IvabradineIvermectin IxabepiloneIxazomibIxekizumabKanamycinKanendomycinKetamineKetanserinKetazolam Ketobemidone Ketoconazole KetoprofenKetorolacKetotifenLabetalolLacidipine LacosamideLafutidine Lamivudine Lamotrigine LanreotideLansoprazole Lanthanum carbonateLapatinibLaronidaseLaropiprantLarotrectinibL-Asparaginase Latanoprost LatanoprosteneLaudexiumLebrikizumabLecanemabLedipasvirLefetamine LeflunomideLemborexantLenacapavirLenalidomideLenograstim LenvatinibLepirudin LercanidipineLetermovirLetrozole [Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]LeuprorelinLevamisoleLevamlodipineLevamphetamineLevetiracetamLevobunololLevocabastineLevocetirizine Levodopa LevofloxacinLevomethamphetamine LevomethorphanLevomoramideLevonorgestrel LevorphanolLevosimendan LevothyroxineLidoflazine LignocaineLinagliptinLincomycin LinezolidLipegfilgrastimLiothyronineLiraglutideLisdexamfetamineLisinopril LisurideLithium carbonate LixisenatideLodoxamideLofentanilLofepramineLomefloxacinLomustine LonazolacLoncastuximab tesirineLonoccog alfaLopinavir LoprazolamLoracarbef Lorazepam LorlatinibLormetazepam LosartanLoteprednolLovastatin LoxoprofenL-Pyroglutamyl-L-histidyl-L-proline amide LubiprostoneLuliconazoleLumefantrineLurasidoneLurbinectedinLuspaterceptLuteinising hormone Lutetium-177Lutropin alfa Lymecycline Lynoestrenol LypressinLysurideMacitentanMafenideMangafodipirMannitol hexanitrate MannomustineMaprotilineMaravirocMaribavirMarstacimabMavacamtenMazindol MebanazineMebezoniumMebhydrolinMebutamate MecamylamineMeclastineMeclofenamic acidMeclofenoxateMecloqualoneMeclozineMedazepam Medigoxin Medrogestone MedroxyprogesteroneMefenamic acidMefenorex MefloquineMefruside Megestrol[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]MelengestrolMelitracenMeloxicam Melphalan MemantineMenotrophinMepenzolateMephenesinMephentermineMepivacaineMepolizumabMeprobamate MepyramineMequitazine MercaptopurineMeropenemMesalazine MESNA (2-mercaptoethane sulfonate sodium)Mesocarb Mesoridazine Mestanolone Mesterolone Mestranol MetabutethamineMetaiodobenzylguanidine (I-131)MetaraminolMetaxalone MetazocineMetergoline MetforminMethacyclineMethadoneMethadyl acetateMethallenoestril Methandienone Methandriol MethanthelineMethapyrileneMethaqualoneMetharbitone MethdilazineMethenoloneMethicillinMethimazole Methisoprinol MethixeneMethocarbamol MethohexitoneMethoin Methoserpidine MethotrexateMethotrimeprazineMethoxamineMethoxsalen MethoxyfluraneMethoxyphenamineMethsuximide Methyclothiazide Methyl aminolevulinateMethylaminoheptaneMethylamphetamineMethyldihydromorphineMethyldopa MethyldopateMethylephedrineMethylergometrineMethylnaltrexoneMethylpentynolMethylphenidateMethylphenobarbitone MethylprednisoloneMethylsulphonal Methyltestosterone MethylthioniniumMethylthiouracil MethypryloneMethysergideMetipranololMetoclopramideMetolazone MetomidateMetoponMetoprololMetronidazoleMexiletineMianserinMibefradilMicafungin[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]MicronomicinMidazolamMidecamycinMidodrineMidostaurinMifepristoneMiglitol MilrinoneMiltefosine MinaprineMinocyclineMinoxidil (other than topical preparations)MirabegronMirtazapine Misoprostol MithramycinMitobronitol MitomycinsMitopodozideMitotane MitoxantroneMivacuriumMizolastine[Deleted by S XXX/2025 wef 01/12/2025]Moclobemide MoexiprilMolgramostim MolindoneMomelotinibMometasoneMonofluoroacetic acidMontelukastMorazoneMorinamideMoroctocog alfaMoroxydineMorphineMosunetuzumabMoxalactamMoxifloxacinMoxonidine MupirocinMuromonab-CD3 Mustine and any other N-substituted derivatives of di-(2-chloroethyl) amineMycophenolic acidMyrophineMyrtecaineNabumetone N-Acetylaspartyl glutamic acid; spaglumic acidNadolol NadroparinNafarelinNafcillinNaftidrofurylNaftifineNalbuphineNalidixic acidNalmefeneNalorphineNaloxoneNaltrexoneNandroloneNaproxenNaratriptanNatalizumabNatamycinNateglinide [Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Nealbarbitone NebivololNecitumumabNedocromilNefazodoneNefopamNelfinavirNemolizumabNeoarsphenamineNeomycinNeostigmineNepafenacNeratinibNetarsudilNetilmicinNetupitantNevirapineNialamideNiaprazine NicardipineNicergoline NicocodineNicodicodineNicomorphine[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Nicoumalone Nifedipine Nifuroxazide Nifurzide Nikethamide NilotinibNilvadipine Nimesulide Nimetazepam Nimodipine NimorazoleNintedanibNiraparibNiridazole NirmatrelvirNirsevimabNisoldipine Nitrazepam Nitrendipine Nitric oxideNitrofurantoinNitrofurazone NitrominNitroprussideNitroxoline NivolumabNizatidine NomegestrolNometasoneNomifensineNonacog alfaNoracymethadolNoradrenalineNoramidopyrineNorbuprenorphineNorcodeineNordazepam Norelgestromin Norethandrolone Norethisterone Norethynodrel Norfloxacin Norgestimate Norgestrel NorketamineNorlevorphanol NormethadoneNormorphine NorpipanoneNortriptylineNovobiocinNoxythiolin NusinersenNystatinObinutuzumabOcrelizumabOcriplasminOctacosactrin Octocog alfaOctreotideOestradiol Oestriol Oestrone OfatumumabOfloxacinOlanzapine OlaparibOleandomycinOlmesartanOlodaterolOlopatadine OlsalazineOmalizumabOmbitasvirOmeprazoleOmidenepagOndansetronOpipramolOrciprenalineOrelabrutinibOrlistat OrnidazoleOrphenadrineOrthocaineOseltamivirOsimertinibOspemifeneOteracil Oxaliplatin Oxamniquine Oxandrolone OxantelOxatomideOxazepamOxazolam Oxcarbazepine OxedrineOxidronic acidOxiracetamOxolinic acid OxomemazineOxophenarsineOxpentifylline OxprenololOxybuprocaineOxybutyninOxycodone Oxymesterone OxymetazolineOxymetholoneOxymorphone OxypertineOxyphenbutazone OxyphencyclimineOxyphenoniumOxytetracyclineOxytocinOzanimodp-Aminobenzoic acidPaclitaxel PalbociclibPaliperidonePalivizumabPalonosetronPamidronate[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]PancuroniumPanitumumabPanobinostatPantoprazole Paraldehyde Paramethadione ParamethasoneParecoxibPargylineParicalcitol ParitaprevirParnaparinParomomycinParoxetinePasireotidePazopanib Pecilocin PefloxacinPegaptanibPegaspargasePegfilgrastimPeginterferonPegunigalsidase alfaPegvisomantPemafibratePembrolizumabPemetrexedPemigatinibPemolinePempidinePenamecillin Penciclovir PenethamatePenfluridol PenicillaminePenicillin G; benzylpenicillinPenicillin V; phenoxymethylpenicillinPentaerythritol tetranitrate PentamidinePentazocinePenthienatePentobarbitonePentoliniumPentoxifyllinePerampanelPerfluorobutanePerfluoropropanePergolidePerhexilinePericyazine PerindoprilPerphenazinePertuzumabPethidinePethidinic acidPhenacainePhenacemide Phenacetin Phenaglycodol PhenazepamPhenazocinePhenbenicillinPhenbutrazate PhencyclidinePhendimetrazinePhenelzinePhenethicillinPhenethylaminePhenetidylphenacetin Pheneturide PhenforminPhenglutarimidePhenindaminePhenindione PheniraminePhenmetrazinePhenobarbitonePhenoperidine PhenothiazinePhenoxybenzaminePhenoxypropazinePhenprocoumon Phensuximide PhenterminePhentolaminePhenylbutazonePhenylmethyl barbituric acid PhenylpropanolaminePhenytoinPhthalylsulphacetamide PhthalylsulphathiazolePhysostigminePibrentasvirPicrotoxin PilocarpinePimecrolimus PiminodinePimozidePinazepam PioglitazonePipecuroniumPipemidic acid PipenzolatePiperacillinPiperazine oestrone sulphate PiperidolatePipothiazinePipradrolPiracetam PirenoxinePirenzepinePirfenidonePiribedil PiritramidePiroxicam Pirprofen PitavastatinPivmecillinamPizotifenPlerixaforPolatuzumab vedotinPoldinePolidexidePolidocanolPolymethylene-bistrimethylammonium salts PolymyxinsPolyoestradiolPolythiazide PomalidomidePonatinibPosaconazolePractololPralatrexatePralidoximePralsetinibPramipexolePrasugrelPravastatinPrazepam Praziquantel PrazosinPrednicarbate Prednisolone PrednisonePregabalinPrenoxdiazinePrenylaminePrilocaineProcainePrimaquinePrimidone Prindolol Probenecid Probucol ProcainamideProcaine penicillin ProcarbazineProchlorperazineProcyclidineProfenoneProgesteroneProguanilProlintanePromazinePromestriene PromethazinePromoxolane PronethalolPropafenonePropanidid Propantheline ProparacainePropicillinPropiomazinePropiramPropiverinePropofol PropoxyphenePropranololPropylhexedrinePropylthiouracil PropyromazineProquamezineProquazone Prostaglandins ProtamineProthionamideProthipendylProtirelinProtriptylineProxymetacaineProxyphylline PrucalopridePyrathiazinePyrazinamidePyridinolcarbamate PyridostigminePyrimethamine PyritinolPyrovalerone PyrrobutamineQuetiapineQuinagolideQuinalbarbitoneQuinaprilQuinestradol Quinestrol Quinethazone Quinidine QuinineQuinupristin RabeprazoleRacecadotrilRacemethorphanRacemoramideRacemorphanRadium-223Rafoxanide RaloxifeneRaltegravir RaltitrexedRamipril RamucirumabRanibizumabRanitidineRanolazineRasagilineRasburicase Raubasine RavulizumabRaxtozinameranRazoxane ReboxetineRegorafenibRelatlimabRemdesivirRemifentanilRepaglinideReserpineRetapamulinReteplase RetigabineRetinoic acidRevefenacinReviparinRhodamine BRibavirin RibociclibRifamideRifampicin RifapentineRifaximinRilmenidineRilpivirineRiluzole RimegepantRimexolone RimiterolRiociguatRipasudilRipretinibRisankizumabRisdiplamRisedronic acidRisperidone RistocetinRitlecitinibRitodrineRitonavir Rituximab RivaroxabanRivastigmineRizatriptanRocuroniumRofecoxib RolitetracyclineRomiplostimRomosozumabRopeginterferonRopiniroleRopivacaineRosiglitazoneRosoxacin Rosuvastatin RotigotineRoxatidineRoxithromycinRufinamideRupatadine Rurioctocog alfa pegolRuxolitinibSacituzumab govitecanSacubitrilSafinamideSalazosulphadimidine SalbutamolSalmefamol SalmeterolSantonin SaquinavirSarilumabSatralizumabSaxagliptin SecbutobarbitoneSecnidazole SecobarbitalSecukinumabSelegilineSelexipagSelinexorSelpercatinibSelumetinibSemaglutideSermorelinSertaconazoleSertralineSevelamer Sevoflurane SibutramineSildenafilSiltuximabSilver sulphadiazine SimeprevirSimfibrate Simoctocog alfaSimvastatin SiponimodSirolimus SisomicinSitagliptinSodium apolate Sodium aurothiomalate Sodium dihydroazapentaceneSodium fluorideSodium iodide [I-131]Sodium molybdate [99Mo]Sodium oxidronate Sodium pertechnetateSodium picosulphate Sodium pyrophosphateSodium tetradecyl sulphateSodium valproate Sodium zirconiumSofosbuvirSolifenacin SomapacitanSomatostatinSomatrogonSomatropinSorafenibSotalolSotaterceptSotorasibSparfloxacin SpectinomycinSpesolimabSpiramycinSpironolactone Stanolone Stanozolol Stavudine Stilboestrol Streptokinase StreptomycinStreptozocin Strontium [89Sr] Styramate Succinylsulphathiazole SucralfateSucroferric oxyhydroxideSufentanil Sugammadex SulbactamSulbenicillinSulfabenzamide Sulfacytine Sulfametopyrazine SulfametroleSulindac Sulphabromomethazine SulphacetamideSulphachlorpyridazine SulphadiazineSulphadicramide Sulphadimethoxine SulphadimidineSulphadoxine Sulphaethidole SulphafurazoleSulphaguanidine Sulphaloxic acid SulphamerazineSulphamethazine Sulphamethizole Sulphamethoxazole Sulphamethoxydiazine Sulphamethoxypyridazine Sulphametopyrazine Sulphamonomethoxine Sulphamoxole Sulphanilamide Sulphaphenazole Sulphapyrazole Sulphapyridine Sulphaquinoxaline Sulphasalazine Sulphasomidine SulphathiazoleSulphathiourea Sulphatolamide Sulphaurea Sulphinpyrazone SulphomyxinSulphonalSulpiride Sulprostone SultamicillinSulthiame SumatriptanSunitinibSuprofenSuxamethonium[Deleted by S XXX/2025 wef 01/12/2025]Syrosingopine TacrineTacrolimusTadalafilTafamidisTafluprostTagraxofuspTalampicillinTalazoparibTaliglucerase alfaTalquetamabTamoxifenTamsulosin TapentadolTazarotene TazobactamTeclistamabTeclothiazideTedizolidTegafur TegaserodTegoprazanTeicoplanin TelbivudineTelithromycinTelmisartan Temazepam Temozolomide TemsirolimusTenecteplase Teniposide Tenofovir Tenonitrozole Tenoxicam TepotinibTerazosinTerbinafineTerbutalineTerconazole Terfenadine TeriflunomideTeriparatide TerlipressinTertatololTestosterone TetrabenazineTetracaine TetracosactideTetracyclinesTetrahydrocannabinol Tetrazepam TetrofosminTezepelumabThalidomideThallium ThebaconThenalidineThenyldiamineTheofibrate Theophylline Thiabendazole Thiacetazone ThialbarbitoneThiamazoleThiambutosine ThiamphenicolThiazinamiumThiethylperazineThiocarlideThioguanineThiopentoneThiopropazate ThioproperazineThioridazineThiotepaThiothixeneThiouracilThymalfasinThymoxamine[Deleted by S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Thyrotrophin ThyroxineTiagabineTianeptineTiaprideTiaprofenic acidTibolone Ticagrelor Ticarcillin TiclopidineTiemoniumTigecyclineTigloidineTildrakizumabTilidineTiludronic acidTimepidiumTimololTinidazole TinzaparinTioconazole TiotropiumTipiracilTirilazadTirofibanTirzepatideTislelizumabTixocortolTizanidineTobramycinTocainideTocilizumabTofacitinibTofenacinTolazamideTolazolineTolbutamideTolcapone TolmetinToloxatone TolperisoneTolpropamineTolterodineTolvaptanTopiramate TopotecanToremifeneToripalimabTosufloxacinTozinameranTrabectedinTramadolTrametinibTranexamic acid TranylcypromineTrastuzumab Travoprost TrazodoneTremelimumabTreosulphan TretamineTretinoin Triacetyloleandomycin TriamcinoloneTriamtereneTriaziquone Triazolam Tribenoside Tribromethyl alcoholTrichomycinTriclofos sodium TricyclamolTrienbolone Trientine TrifaroteneTrifluoperazineTrifluorothymidineTrifluperidolTrifluridineTriflusalTrihexyphenidylTrimebutineTrimegestone TrimeperidineTrimeprazineTrimetaphanTrimetazidineTrimethoprimTrimetrexateTrimipramineTrimustineTripamide TripelennamineTriptorelinTromantadineTropicamide TropisetronTrospiumTrovafloxacinTroxidone TubocurarineTucatinibTuroctocog alfaTybamate TylosinUlipristalUmeclidiniumUnoprostoneUpadacitinibUramustine UrapidilUrea [13C]Urea [14C]UreamycinUrethane Urokinase Ursodeoxycholic acidUstekinumabVaborbactamValaciclovirValbenazineValdecoxib ValganciclovirValproic acidValsartan VancomycinVardenafil VareniclineVasopressinVecuroniumVedolizumabVelaglucerase alfaVelpatasvirVemurafenibVenetoclaxVenlafaxineVerapamilVericiguatVernakalantVerteporfinVidarabine Vigabatrin VilanterolVildagliptinViloxazineVinbarbitoneVinblastineVincristineVindesineVinflunine VinorelbineVinpocetine Vinylbital ViomycinVirginiamycinVismodegibVonoprazanVoriconazole VortioxetineVoxilaprevirVutrisiranWarfarinXamoterol Xipamide XylazineXylometazolineYttrium-90Zafirlukast Zalcitabine Zanamivir ZanubrutinibZidovudine ZipeprolZiprasidoneZofenoprilZolbetuximabZolendronic acidZolmitriptan ZolpidemZopiclone ZoxazolamineZuclopenthixolNote: The stereoisomeric forms or salts of the substances specified in Part 1, wherever the existence of such stereoisomeric forms or salts is possible, are also active ingredients for the purpose of this Part.[S 767/2025 wef 01/12/2025][S 817/2024 wef 01/11/2024][S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023][S 219/2017 wef 01/05/2017]Part 2Classes of therapeutic products
1. Anti-toxins
2. Anti-venoms
3. Insulins
4. Plasma derivatives
5. Androgen, oestrogen or progestogen hormones
6. Vaccine antigens[S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]Part 3Active ingredients in pharmacy-only medicinesAlbendazoleAlverineAmorolfineAmyl nitriteBambuterolBenzydamineBrompheniramineBuclizineButyl aminobenzoateCarbinoxamineCarbocysteineCetirizineCinnarizineDexchlorpheniramineDextromethorphanDicycloverineDiphenhydramineDiphenoxylateFlunarizineIsoconazoleLevodropropizineLoperamideLoratadineMebendazoleMebeverineMiconazoleNaphazolineNicotineOxethazaineParachlorophenol PhenyltoloxaminePholcodinePodophyllum resinPodophyllotoxin[Deleted by S 817/2024 wef 01/11/2024]ProcaterolPseudoephedrineSodium cromoglycateTetrahydrozolineTolnaftateTriprolidineTyrothricinNote: The stereoisomeric forms or salts of the substances specified in Part 3, wherever the existence of such stereoisomeric forms or salts is possible, are also active ingredients for the purpose of this Part.[S 817/2024 wef 01/11/2024][S 681/2023 wef 01/11/2023]
FOURTH SCHEDULERegulation 20(2)First columnSecond columnSubstanceTerm to be used1.Tartrazinetartrazine (Code E102)tartrazine (Code 102)tartrazine (Code FD and C Yellow No. 5) 2.Benzoic acidbenzoic acidbenzoic acid (Code E210)3.Sodium benzoatesodium benzoatesodium benzoate (Code E211)
Cautionary information to be labelled on therapeutic products
FIFTH SCHEDULERegulation 20(3)Cautionary information to be labelled on therapeutic productsFirst column Second columnTherapeutic product Cautionary information
1. Therapeutic product containing aspirin or acetylsalicylic acid for oral administration Caution: Not to be given to persons below 16 years of age except under the direction of a doctor.2.Therapeutic product containing any of the following substances for oral administration: Caution: This may cause drowsiness. If affected, do not drive or operate machinery.(a)Diphenoxylate (b)Loperamide (c)The following anti‑histamine substances: Antazoline Azatadine Bamipine Bromodiphenhydramine Bromopheniramine Buclizine Carbinoxamine Chlorcyclizine Chlorpheniramine Cinnarizine Clemastine Clemizole Cyclizine Cyproheptadine Dexchlorpheniramine Dimethpyrindene Diphenhydramine Diphenylpyraline Doxylamine Embramine Flunarizine Homochlorcyclizine Isothipendyl Levocabastine Mebhydrolin Meclastine Meclozine Mepyramine Mequitazine Methdilazine Oxatomide Oxomemazine Phenindamine Pheniramine Phenyltoloxamine Promethazine Pyrathiazine Pyrrobutamine Thenalidine Thenyldiamine Thiazinamium Tolpropamine Tripelennamine Triprolidine
SEVENTH SCHEDULERegulation 52(1)(b)First columnSecond columnTherapeutic productMaximum amount allowed
1. Codeine; its salts (a)Oral liquid preparation — not exceeding 15 mg per 5 ml and not exceeding 240 ml in quantity(b)Solid preparation — not exceeding 30 mg per dosage unit and not exceeding 20 dosage units in quantity
2. Dextromethorphan(a)Oral liquid preparation — not exceeding 15 mg per 5 ml and not exceeding 240 ml in quantity(b)Solid preparation — not exceeding 30 mg per dosage unit and not exceeding 20 dosage units in quantity[S 732/2021 wef 01/10/2021]
[Deleted by S 458/2022 wef 01/07/2022]